ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. A client who is to undergo an exercise stress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should eat a large meal 2 hours before the test
- B. I should avoid drinking water before the test
- C. I should stop taking my blood pressure medication
- D. I should report any chest pain during the test
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I should report any chest pain during the test.' This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because reporting chest pain during an exercise stress test is crucial as it may signify cardiac distress. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Eating a large meal 2 hours before the test is not recommended as it may affect the results. Avoiding drinking water before the test is also not advisable as staying hydrated is important. Stopping blood pressure medication without medical advice can be dangerous, especially before a stress test.
2. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who has a chest tube connected to a closed drainage system. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Clamp the chest tube
- B. Maintain the drainage below the level of the chest
- C. Elevate the chest tube above chest level
- D. Avoid frequent dressing changes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a chest tube connected to a closed drainage system is to maintain the drainage below the level of the chest. This position allows proper drainage of fluids and helps prevent complications such as backflow of blood or fluids into the chest cavity. Clamping the chest tube (Choice A) is incorrect as it can lead to a tension pneumothorax. Elevating the chest tube above chest level (Choice C) is also incorrect because it can impede proper drainage. Avoiding frequent dressing changes (Choice D) is important to prevent introducing infection, but it is not directly related to the position of the drainage system.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?
- A. Decerebrate posturing.
- B. Hypervigilance.
- C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.
4. A nurse is delegating the collection of a sputum specimen to an assistive personnel (AP). At which of the following times should the nurse instruct the AP to collect the specimen?
- A. In the afternoon
- B. As soon as the client awakens in the morning
- C. Before bedtime
- D. Immediately after lunch
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'As soon as the client awakens in the morning.' Sputum specimens should be collected early in the morning to obtain a concentrated sample. This timing ensures that the specimen is less diluted, providing a more accurate analysis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the optimal timing for collecting a sputum specimen, which is in the morning.
5. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hr postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hr following surgery.
- B. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hr.
- C. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hr.
- D. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours is crucial to ensure adequate pain control in the immediate postoperative period. Choice A is incorrect because clear liquids are typically initiated gradually and advanced as tolerated but not specifically at 6 hours post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect as cromolyn nebulizer solution is not indicated for postoperative pain management in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as applying a warm compress may not be appropriate for the operative site after appendicitis surgery and can potentially increase the risk of infection.
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