Nursing Elites

1. A client who has a new prosthesis for an above-the-knee amputation of the right leg needs teaching on its use. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Wear the prosthesis for 2 hours at a time
• B. Remove the prosthesis every other day
• C. Apply the prosthesis immediately upon waking each day
• D. Elevate the stump for 24 hours after applying the prosthesis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply the prosthesis immediately upon waking each day. This helps the client adjust to and maintain mobility. Choice A is incorrect because wearing the prosthesis for only 2 hours at a time may not be sufficient for proper adjustment. Choice B is incorrect as removing the prosthesis every other day is not a standard practice and may hinder the client's mobility. Choice D is incorrect because elevating the stump for 24 hours after applying the prosthesis is unnecessary and not a recommended practice.

2. A nurse in a long-term care facility is contributing to the plan of care for a client who has a new ostomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Change the appliance daily
• B. Clean the stoma once a day
• C. Avoid changing the appliance for a week
• D. Change the appliance twice each week

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the appliance twice each week. Changing the appliance too frequently can irritate the skin around the stoma, while not changing it often enough can lead to infection. Changing the appliance twice a week helps to maintain hygiene without causing irritation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because changing the appliance daily can cause irritation, cleaning the stoma once a day may not be sufficient for proper hygiene, and avoiding changing the appliance for a week can increase the risk of infection and skin breakdown.

3. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

4. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with fluid volume deficit?

• A. Encourage oral fluid intake
• B. Administer IV fluids as ordered
• C. Monitor urine output and check electrolyte levels
• D. Monitor skin turgor and capillary refill

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging oral fluid intake is a crucial nursing intervention in managing a patient with fluid volume deficit. By encouraging oral fluid intake, the patient can increase hydration levels, helping to correct the deficit. Administering IV fluids may be necessary in severe cases or when the patient is unable to tolerate oral intake. Monitoring urine output and checking electrolyte levels are essential aspects of assessing fluid volume status, but they are not direct interventions for correcting fluid volume deficit. Monitoring skin turgor and capillary refill are important assessments for fluid volume status but are not direct management strategies.

5. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Elevated blood pressure.
• B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
• C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.

Similar Questions