Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary intervention for sepsis?

• A. Administer IV antibiotics
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Administer fluids
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary intervention for sepsis involves a multifaceted approach, including administering IV antibiotics to address the underlying infection and administering fluids to stabilize the patient's hemodynamic status. Monitoring blood pressure is important in the management of sepsis, but it is not the sole primary intervention. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above' as it encompasses the comprehensive approach required for effective sepsis management.

2. A client is given morphine 6 mg IV push for postoperative pain. Following administration of this drug, the nurse observes the following: pulse 68, respirations 8, BP 100/68, client sleeping quietly. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?

• A. Allow the client to sleep undisturbed
• B. Administer oxygen via facemask or nasal prongs
• C. Administer naloxone (Narcan)
• D. Place epinephrine 1:1,000 at the bedside

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer naloxone (Narcan). The client's vital signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of morphine. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, particularly to restore normal respiratory function. Administering oxygen alone (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of respiratory depression. Allowing the client to sleep undisturbed (Choice A) is inappropriate when signs of respiratory depression are present. Epinephrine (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and is not used to reverse opioid effects.

3. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. What is the healthcare professional's first action?

• A. Check the client's temperature
• B. Verify that the client's blood type matches the blood product
• C. Administer the blood through an IV push
• D. Ensure the blood is warmed before administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare professional's first action before administering a blood transfusion should be to verify that the client's blood type matches the blood product. This step is crucial to ensure compatibility and prevent potentially severe transfusion reactions. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) is important but not the first action in this scenario. Administering the blood through an IV push (Choice C) is incorrect as blood transfusions are typically administered as a slow infusion. Ensuring the blood is warmed before administration (Choice D) is not the first action and is not a standard practice in blood transfusions.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client with dementia who frequently becomes agitated. What should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Investigate the client's fluid and electrolyte balance
• B. Investigate the client's recent medication changes
• C. Investigate recent changes in cognitive functioning
• D. Investigate the client's psychosocial environment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to investigate the client's recent medication changes. In a client with dementia who frequently becomes agitated, medication changes can often be a significant factor contributing to their behavior. Checking recent medication changes can help identify if any specific medication is causing or exacerbating the agitation. Choice A about fluid and electrolyte balance is less likely to be the priority unless there are specific indications in the medical record. Choice C, investigating recent changes in cognitive functioning, may be important but addressing the agitation first is a more immediate concern. Choice D, investigating the client's psychosocial environment, is also important but may not directly address the immediate cause of the agitation as medication changes could.

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