Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary intervention for sepsis?

• A. Administer IV antibiotics
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Administer fluids
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary intervention for sepsis involves a multifaceted approach, including administering IV antibiotics to address the underlying infection and administering fluids to stabilize the patient's hemodynamic status. Monitoring blood pressure is important in the management of sepsis, but it is not the sole primary intervention. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above' as it encompasses the comprehensive approach required for effective sepsis management.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a sign of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat heart failure, works by slowing down the heart rate and increasing the force of heart contractions. Excessive levels of digoxin can lead to toxicity, causing bradycardia (slow heart rate), among other symptoms. Tachycardia (fast heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite is not a recognized sign of digoxin toxicity; instead, gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and anorexia are more common.

3. A nurse is collecting data from a school-age child who has sustained a skull fracture. Which of the following is a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure?

• A. Nausea
• B. Confusion about own name
• C. Rapid pulse
• D. Vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion, especially about one's own name, is a sign of increased intracranial pressure and should be addressed. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms of increased intracranial pressure, but confusion about personal information is a more specific and critical indication that requires immediate attention. Rapid pulse may be a possible response to increased intracranial pressure, but it is not as specific as confusion about own name in this scenario.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who is at risk for developing osteoporosis. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse make?

• A. Walk for at least 30 minutes each day
• B. Avoid sunlight exposure
• C. Take vitamin B12 supplements
• D. Increase calcium intake to 1,500 mg per day

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase calcium intake to 1,500 mg per day. Adequate calcium intake is essential for maintaining bone density and reducing the risk of osteoporosis. Walking for at least 30 minutes each day is beneficial for overall health but is not as directly related to osteoporosis prevention as calcium intake. Sunlight exposure is important for vitamin D synthesis, which is necessary for calcium absorption, so avoiding sunlight exposure would not be recommended. Vitamin B12 supplements are not directly related to bone health or osteoporosis prevention, so this would not be the most appropriate recommendation.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• B. Sodium level of 135 mEq/L
• C. Magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L
• D. Calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.

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