Nursing Elites

1. A home health nurse is caring for an older adult client who just returned home following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess mobility
• B. Monitor vital signs
• C. Provide pain relief
• D. Reinforce discharge teaching

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing mobility should be the nurse's priority as it ensures the client's safety and helps in developing an appropriate care plan. By evaluating the client's ability to move after the knee arthroplasty, the nurse can identify any immediate issues or complications that need to be addressed promptly. Monitoring vital signs, providing pain relief, and reinforcing discharge teaching are important aspects of care but assessing mobility takes precedence in ensuring the client's immediate well-being and identifying any potential risks.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
• C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

3. After abdominal surgery, a client has a nasogastric tube attached to low suctioning. The client becomes nauseated, and the nurse observes a decrease in the flow of gastric secretions. Which of the following nursing interventions would be MOST appropriate?

• A. Irrigate the nasogastric tube with distilled water
• B. Aspirate the gastric contents with a syringe
• C. Administer an antiemetic medication
• D. Insert a new nasogastric tube

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention when a client with a nasogastric tube experiences nausea and a decrease in gastric secretions is to aspirate the gastric contents with a syringe. This action helps relieve nausea by removing excess fluid and gas. Option A, irrigating the nasogastric tube with distilled water, is not indicated as it does not address the underlying issue of decreased gastric secretions. Option C, administering an antiemetic medication, may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the mechanical issue of decreased flow in the nasogastric tube. Option D, inserting a new nasogastric tube, is not necessary unless there are specific complications or obstructions in the current tube.

4. A nurse is caring for a client post-abdominal surgery who has an NG tube. The client reports nausea and a decrease in gastric output. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Turn the client onto their left side
• B. Irrigate the NG tube with sterile water
• C. Increase the suction pressure to relieve the blockage
• D. Remove the NG tube and replace it with a new one

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to irrigate the NG tube with sterile water first. This action helps to relieve blockages that may be causing the decrease in gastric output and nausea. Turning the client onto their left side may not directly address the issue with the NG tube. Increasing the suction pressure can further exacerbate the problem and should not be done without assessing the situation first. Removing the NG tube and replacing it with a new one is a more invasive step that should be considered only if other measures are unsuccessful.

5. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is in labor and has spontaneous rupture of membranes following a vaginal examination. The provider reports the client's cervix is dilated to 1 cm with an unengaged presenting part. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to bear down
• B. Apply the external fetal monitor
• C. Provide the client with fluids
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, with the client's cervix dilated to only 1 cm and an unengaged presenting part, the priority action is to apply the external fetal monitor. This allows for continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate during early labor, which is crucial for assessing fetal well-being. Encouraging the client to bear down is not appropriate at 1 cm dilation, as it may not be effective and can lead to exhaustion. Providing the client with fluids or administering IV fluids may be necessary for hydration, but the immediate concern is monitoring fetal well-being.

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