Nursing Elites

1. A client who is immobile needs interventions to prevent contractures. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?

• A. Aligning a trochanter wedge between the client's legs.
• B. Placing a towel roll under the client's neck.
• C. Applying an orthotic to the client's foot.
• D. Positioning a pillow under the client's knees.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Applying an orthotic to the client's foot is the appropriate intervention to prevent contractures in an immobile client. An orthotic helps maintain proper alignment and prevents the development of contractures by keeping the foot in the correct position. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a trochanter wedge, towel roll under the neck, and pillow under the knees are not specific interventions for preventing contractures in an immobile client.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to transfer a client who has had a stroke and is at risk for falling to a rehabilitation facility. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional include in the transfer report?

• A. The client's urination habits.
• B. The client's financial information.
• C. The client's social history.
• D. The client's current level of mobility.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's current level of mobility is essential to be included in the transfer report for the rehabilitation facility to develop an appropriate care plan. Understanding the client's mobility status helps in determining the level of assistance and interventions needed to prevent falls and promote safe rehabilitation. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the client's immediate care needs during the transfer to the rehabilitation facility, making them less relevant for the transfer report.

3. What are the common signs and symptoms of dehydration in the elderly?

• A. Dry mouth, confusion, and decreased skin turgor
• B. Increased heart rate and muscle cramps
• C. Fever, rapid breathing, and increased urine output
• D. Increased thirst and difficulty walking

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Dehydration in the elderly is often signaled by dry mouth, confusion, and decreased skin turgor due to reduced fluid intake. Choice A is the correct answer as these are common signs and symptoms of dehydration in the elderly.\nIncorrect Rationales: Option B (Increased heart rate and muscle cramps) are more associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or electrolyte imbalances rather than dehydration. Option C (Fever, rapid breathing, and increased urine output) are signs of other medical conditions such as infections or diabetes insipidus. Option D (Increased thirst and difficulty walking) can be seen in various situations but are not specific signs of dehydration in the elderly.

4. What is the recommended intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia?

• A. Administer glucagon
• B. Provide a source of glucose
• C. Monitor blood sugar
• D. Assess vital signs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering glucagon is the recommended intervention for severe hypoglycemia, especially when the patient is unconscious or unable to consume oral glucose. Glucagon helps increase blood glucose levels rapidly by stimulating the release of stored glucose from the liver. Providing a source of glucose (Choice B) can be challenging if the patient is unable to swallow or unconscious, making glucagon a more effective option. Monitoring blood sugar levels (Choice C) and assessing vital signs (Choice D) are important aspects of managing hypoglycemia but are not the immediate intervention for severe cases where prompt elevation of blood glucose levels is necessary.

5. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hr postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hr following surgery.
• B. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hr.
• C. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hr.
• D. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours is crucial to ensure adequate pain control in the immediate postoperative period. Choice A is incorrect because clear liquids are typically initiated gradually and advanced as tolerated but not specifically at 6 hours post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect as cromolyn nebulizer solution is not indicated for postoperative pain management in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as applying a warm compress may not be appropriate for the operative site after appendicitis surgery and can potentially increase the risk of infection.

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