Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the client's temperature every 4 hours
• B. Monitor blood glucose levels every 6 hours
• C. Administer insulin as prescribed
• D. Monitor daily fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in clients receiving TPN because the solution has a high glucose content. This monitoring helps prevent hyperglycemia and allows for timely adjustments in the TPN formulation if needed. Monitoring the client's temperature (Choice A) is not directly related to TPN administration. Administering insulin (Choice C) should be based on blood glucose levels and the healthcare provider's orders; it is not a standard intervention for all clients on TPN. Monitoring daily fluid intake (Choice D) is important for overall fluid balance but is not as critical as monitoring blood glucose levels specifically for clients on TPN.

2. A nurse in a long-term care facility is reviewing information about health care-associated infections with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Frequent hand washing prevents infection
• B. Prolonged use of corticosteroids increases infection risk
• C. Limit patient interaction to reduce infection spread
• D. Restrict client movement to prevent contamination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because prolonged use of corticosteroids is a known risk factor for infections. Choice A is incorrect because frequent hand washing actually helps prevent infections. Choice C is incorrect as patient interaction is essential in healthcare but should be done following proper infection control measures. Choice D is also incorrect as restricting client movement is not a standard practice to prevent contamination.

3. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with home oxygen. What is the most important safety consideration?

• A. Restrict fluid intake while using oxygen
• B. Ensure oxygen tanks are kept upright and away from heat sources
• C. Allow family members to smoke in designated areas
• D. Store oxygen tanks in a closet when not in use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure oxygen tanks are kept upright and away from heat sources. This is crucial to prevent any potential fire hazard, as oxygen supports combustion. Restricting fluid intake while using oxygen (choice A) is not necessary for oxygen safety. Allowing family members to smoke in designated areas (choice C) poses a significant fire risk. Storing oxygen tanks in a closet when not in use (choice D) is unsafe because proper ventilation is needed to prevent oxygen accumulation.

4. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What is the next step the nurse should take?

• A. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Apply a cold compress over the IV site
• D. Increase the IV flow rate to prevent dehydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the nurse's immediate action should be to discontinue the IV and notify the healthcare provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and leaving the IV in place can lead to complications such as infection or thrombosis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (choice A) may not address the root cause and delay the necessary intervention. Applying a cold compress (choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to remove the source of inflammation. Increasing the IV flow rate (choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate the phlebitis by causing more irritation to the vein.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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