ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is undergoing radiation therapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent skin irritation?
- A. Apply heat packs to the area
- B. Use perfumed soap to cleanse the area
- C. Keep the area moist with lotion
- D. Avoid sun exposure to the treated area
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Avoiding sun exposure is crucial to prevent skin irritation and burns in clients undergoing radiation therapy. Radiation therapy makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, increasing the risk of skin damage. Applying heat packs (choice A) can exacerbate skin irritation as heat can further irritate the skin that is already sensitive due to radiation. Using perfumed soap (choice B) can further irritate the skin due to its harsh chemicals, potentially worsening skin reactions. While keeping the area moist with lotion (choice C) may seem beneficial, some lotions contain ingredients that can worsen skin reactions during radiation therapy. Therefore, avoiding sun exposure to the treated area (choice D) is the most appropriate action to prevent skin irritation and damage during radiation therapy.
2. A client who had a vaginal delivery 4 hours ago has a fourth-degree perineal laceration. Which of the following interventions should the nurse recommend?
- A. Encourage ambulation
- B. Apply ice packs
- C. Restrict the client's fluid intake
- D. Administer stool softeners
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: Applying ice packs is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a fourth-degree perineal laceration. Ice packs help reduce swelling and promote comfort, aiding in the healing process. Choice A, encouraging ambulation, may not be suitable immediately after a fourth-degree laceration due to the need for rest and proper wound care. Choice C, restricting fluid intake, is not indicated and can lead to dehydration, which is not beneficial for wound healing. Choice D, administering stool softeners, may be necessary to prevent constipation and straining, but it is not the priority intervention at this time.
3. How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Administer potassium supplements and monitor ECG
- B. Restrict fluid intake and provide a high-sodium diet
- C. Monitor sodium levels and provide insulin therapy
- D. Provide calcium supplements and monitor for hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hypokalemia is managed by administering potassium supplements to correct the low potassium levels in the body. Monitoring the ECG is essential because low potassium levels can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B is incorrect as restricting fluid intake and providing a high-sodium diet are not appropriate for managing hypokalemia. Choice C is incorrect because hypokalemia involves low potassium levels, not sodium levels, and insulin therapy does not directly address this issue. Choice D is incorrect as calcium supplements are not indicated for hypokalemia, and monitoring for hyperkalemia is not relevant in this case.
4. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
5. Which of the following interventions is the best to improve the healing of a pressure ulcer for a client with a low serum albumin level?
- A. Provide high-calorie, high-protein supplements
- B. Consult a dietitian to create a high-protein diet plan
- C. Administer nutritional supplements
- D. Increase IV fluids to prevent dehydration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Consulting a dietitian to create a high-protein diet plan is the best intervention for a client with a low serum albumin level to promote healing. This approach ensures that the client receives the specific nutrients needed for wound healing. Providing high-calorie, high-protein supplements (choice A) may not address the specific nutritional deficiencies of the client. Administering nutritional supplements (choice C) is vague and may not target the necessary nutrients for wound healing. Increasing IV fluids (choice D) is important for hydration but does not directly address the nutritional needs of the client to improve ulcer healing.
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