ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. A nurse is planning discharge teaching about cord care for the parents of a newborn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse plan to include in the teaching?
- A. Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily.
- B. The cord stump will fall off in 5 days.
- C. Contact the provider if the cord stump turns black.
- D. Keep the cord stump dry until it falls off.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the cord stump dry until it falls off. This is important to promote natural healing and prevent infection. Choice A is incorrect because cleaning the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily can actually delay healing and increase the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect as the cord stump typically falls off within 1 to 3 weeks, not in 5 days. Choice C is incorrect because a cord stump turning black is a normal part of the healing process and does not necessarily indicate a problem requiring immediate provider contact.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to minimize the risk for injury for this client?
- A. Use a bed exit alarm system
- B. Raise all four side rails while the client is in bed
- C. Apply soft wrist restraints
- D. Dim the lights in the client's room
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Using a bed exit alarm system. A bed exit alarm alerts staff when a client with dementia attempts to leave the bed, reducing the risk of falls. Choice B is incorrect because raising all four side rails can lead to restraint-related injuries and is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as applying wrist restraints should be avoided due to the risk of injury and decreased mobility. Choice D is incorrect as dimming the lights in the client's room does not directly address the risk of injury associated with dementia.
3. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
- B. Limit potassium and phosphorus intake
- C. Increase intake of protein-rich foods
- D. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to limit potassium and phosphorus intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. Excessive potassium and phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. Option A is incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods can exacerbate hyperkalemia in individuals with kidney disease. Option C may not be ideal as excessive protein intake can put extra strain on the kidneys. Option D is not the priority; while adequate fluid intake is important, it is not the primary focus when teaching dietary considerations for chronic kidney disease.
4. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hypertensive crisis?
- A. Administer antihypertensive medications and monitor blood pressure
- B. Provide a high-sodium diet and fluid restriction
- C. Administer diuretics and provide oxygen therapy
- D. Provide IV fluids and monitor for kidney failure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis, the immediate goal is to lower blood pressure to prevent organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications helps achieve this goal efficiently. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and adjust medication as needed. Providing a high-sodium diet and fluid restriction (Choice B) can exacerbate hypertension by increasing blood pressure. Diuretics and oxygen therapy (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for hypertensive crisis, as the priority is rapid blood pressure reduction. Providing IV fluids and monitoring for kidney failure (Choice D) are not primary interventions for managing hypertensive crisis; the focus is on blood pressure control and organ protection.
5. What is the correct way to assess for pitting edema?
- A. Press over the bony area for 5 seconds and release
- B. Press over the skin for 10 seconds and check for discoloration
- C. Press the area and check for the presence of rash
- D. Press the skin and assess for rebound tenderness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct way to assess for pitting edema is to press over a bony area, typically the tibia, for 5 seconds and then release. This allows for the identification of pitting edema, characterized by an indentation that persists for a few seconds. Choice B is incorrect as pitting edema assessment does not involve checking for discoloration. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of a rash is not indicative of pitting edema. Choice D is incorrect as rebound tenderness is a different assessment used for abdominal conditions, not for pitting edema.
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