Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with a potential myocardial infarction (MI)?

• A. Assess symptoms, monitor vital signs, order ECG
• B. Administer medications and monitor for pain
• C. Administer thrombolytics and oxygen therapy
• D. Educate patient on lifestyle changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. When assessing a patient with a potential myocardial infarction, it is crucial to assess symptoms, monitor vital signs like blood pressure and heart rate, and order an electrocardiogram (ECG) to evaluate for cardiac abnormalities. Choice B is incorrect because administering medications should be based on the findings of the assessment and diagnostic tests, not administered indiscriminately. Choice C is incorrect because the administration of thrombolytics and oxygen therapy should be based on specific criteria and should be done in a controlled setting. Choice D is incorrect as educating the patient on lifestyle changes is important for prevention but is not the immediate priority when managing a potential myocardial infarction.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is undergoing screening for prostate cancer. The nurse should expect an elevation in which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
• B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
• C. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
• D. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). PSA is a marker specifically used for prostate cancer screening. Elevated levels of PSA can indicate prostate cancer or other prostate-related issues, prompting the need for further diagnostic investigations. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with prostate cancer screening. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is related to pregnancy, alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is associated with liver and germ cell tumors, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is linked to colorectal cancer.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent atelectasis?

• A. Encourage deep breathing exercises
• B. Encourage the client to cough every 2 hours
• C. Administer an incentive spirometer
• D. Assist the client to ambulate in the hallway

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer an incentive spirometer. Using an incentive spirometer helps prevent atelectasis by encouraging lung expansion after surgery. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (choice A) is beneficial but may not be as effective as an incentive spirometer. Encouraging the client to cough (choice B) helps with airway clearance but does not directly prevent atelectasis. Assisting the client to ambulate (choice D) is important for preventing complications such as deep vein thrombosis, but it is not the most effective intervention for preventing atelectasis.

4. A client has undergone a bronchoscopy, and a nurse is providing care post-procedure. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Monitor the client's oxygen levels
• B. Encourage the client to eat
• C. Check for a gag reflex
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a bronchoscopy, the nurse's priority is to check for a gag reflex. This action helps assess the client's ability to protect their airway after sedation. Maintaining airway patency is crucial post-procedure. Monitoring oxygen levels is important but ensuring airway protection takes precedence. Encouraging the client to eat and administering IV fluids are essential aspects of care but are not the immediate priority in this situation.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
• B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
• C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
• D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a situation where a verbal prescription for restraints is obtained for a client experiencing acute mania, the nurse should document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation allows for accurate monitoring of the client's condition, ensuring safety and compliance. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary as the focus should be on monitoring the client's condition. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is not directly related to the need for restraints in this scenario. Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours (Choice C) is not a priority when a verbal prescription is already obtained and immediate action is needed for the client's safety.

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