Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with a potential myocardial infarction (MI)?

• A. Assess symptoms, monitor vital signs, order ECG
• B. Administer medications and monitor for pain
• C. Administer thrombolytics and oxygen therapy
• D. Educate patient on lifestyle changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. When assessing a patient with a potential myocardial infarction, it is crucial to assess symptoms, monitor vital signs like blood pressure and heart rate, and order an electrocardiogram (ECG) to evaluate for cardiac abnormalities. Choice B is incorrect because administering medications should be based on the findings of the assessment and diagnostic tests, not administered indiscriminately. Choice C is incorrect because the administration of thrombolytics and oxygen therapy should be based on specific criteria and should be done in a controlled setting. Choice D is incorrect as educating the patient on lifestyle changes is important for prevention but is not the immediate priority when managing a potential myocardial infarction.

2. Which term specifically refers to positive actions taken to help others?

• A. Beneficence
• B. Justice
• C. Autonomy
• D. Non-maleficence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Beneficence.' Beneficence is the ethical principle that involves taking positive actions to help others. Choice B, 'Justice,' pertains to fairness and equity in treatment, not specifically positive actions. Choice C, 'Autonomy,' relates to respecting individuals' rights to make their own decisions, not necessarily taking actions to help others. Choice D, 'Non-maleficence,' focuses on the obligation to avoid causing harm rather than actively helping others.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with an NG tube who is experiencing nausea and decreased gastric secretions. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Increase the suction pressure
• B. Turn the client onto their side
• C. Irrigate the NG tube with sterile water
• D. Replace the NG tube with a new one

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to replace the NG tube with a new one. When a client with an NG tube experiences nausea and decreased gastric secretions, it indicates a possible problem with the tube itself. Replacing the tube ensures proper functioning and can alleviate the symptoms. Increasing the suction pressure (Choice A) can worsen the client's condition. Turning the client onto their side (Choice B) may be helpful in some situations but does not address the underlying issue. Irrigating the NG tube with sterile water (Choice C) is not the priority and may not resolve the problem.

4. A nurse in a provider's office is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who is postoperative following cataract removal from one eye. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use eye drops to soothe dryness
• B. Avoid rubbing the eye
• C. Sleep on the side of the affected eye
• D. Avoid lying on the affected side

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After cataract surgery, it is essential to avoid lying on the affected side to reduce pressure and promote healing. Sleeping on the side of the affected eye (Choice C) may increase pressure on the eye, leading to complications. While using eye drops to soothe dryness (Choice A) is generally recommended postoperatively, it is not as crucial as avoiding pressure on the eye. Rubbing the eye (Choice B) should be avoided to prevent irritation and potential damage, but it is not as critical as avoiding pressure on the affected eye.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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