Nursing Elites

1. What is the nurse's responsibility when managing a physically assaultive client?

• A. Restrict the client to the room
• B. Place the client under one-to-one supervision
• C. Restore the client's self-control
• D. Clear the area of other clients

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Restore the client's self-control. When managing a physically assaultive client, the nurse's responsibility is to help the client regain control over their actions and emotions. This is crucial in preventing harm to themselves and others. Restricting the client to the room (Choice A) may escalate the situation and is not a therapeutic approach. Placing the client under one-to-one supervision (Choice B) is important for safety but does not address the root cause of the behavior. Clearing the area of other clients (Choice D) is necessary for safety but does not directly address the client's self-control. Therefore, the priority in managing an assaultive client is to focus on restoring their self-control.

2. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with anemia?

• A. Monitor hemoglobin levels and provide iron supplements
• B. Administer B12 injections
• C. Monitor for signs of infection and administer folic acid
• D. Administer oxygen therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: To assess and manage a patient with anemia, monitoring hemoglobin levels and providing iron supplements are crucial. Anemia is commonly caused by iron deficiency, making iron supplementation a cornerstone of treatment. B12 injections (Choice B) are more relevant for treating megaloblastic anemia, not the typical iron-deficiency anemia. Monitoring for signs of infection and administering folic acid (Choice C) are important in specific types of anemia like megaloblastic anemia, but not the first-line approach for anemia management. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for anemia unless severe hypoxemia is present, which is not typically seen in anemia.

3. What are the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure?

• A. Systolic: Reduced ejection fraction; Diastolic: Preserved ejection fraction
• B. Systolic: Preserved ejection fraction; Diastolic: Reduced ejection fraction
• C. Systolic: Right-sided heart failure; Diastolic: Left-sided heart failure
• D. Systolic: Pulmonary congestion; Diastolic: Systemic congestion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Systolic heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction, meaning the heart is not pumping effectively. Diastolic heart failure, on the other hand, is characterized by preserved ejection fraction, indicating that the heart has difficulty relaxing and filling properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure.

4. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has Tourette syndrome. The client reports taking haloperidol 0.5 mL orally three times a day at home. Which of the following components of the prescription should the nurse question?

• A. Frequency
• B. Dosage
• C. Timing of doses
• D. Route

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should question the dosage of haloperidol as it is typically administered in milligrams (mg) and not milliliters (mL). The dosage should be expressed in a standardized unit for accuracy and to prevent medication errors. Frequency, timing of doses, and route are also important components of a prescription, but in this case, the nurse should focus on the unusual dosage form.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse discontinues the magnesium sulfate after the client displays toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client supine.
• B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5% in water.
• C. Administer methylergonovine IM.
• D. Administer calcium gluconate IV.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, calcium gluconate is the antidote that should be administered promptly. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario. Administering dextrose 5% in water (Choice B) is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine IM (Choice C) is used for postpartum hemorrhage, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity.

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