what is the priority intervention when managing a client with delirium
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers

1. What is the priority intervention when managing a client with delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. Delirium is often caused by underlying issues such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. Addressing these root causes can help resolve delirium more effectively. Administering antipsychotic or sedative medications should not be the initial approach as they can worsen delirium in some cases. Providing a low-stimulation environment is beneficial but not the priority when reversible causes need to be addressed first.

2. What should a healthcare professional do when they observe signs of phlebitis in a client receiving IV fluids?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When signs of phlebitis are observed in a client receiving IV fluids, the appropriate action is to apply a warm compress. This helps to reduce discomfort and swelling at the site of the IV insertion. Applying a cold compress may not be as effective in this case and could potentially worsen the condition. While notifying the physician is important, providing immediate comfort to the client through a warm compress is the initial recommended intervention. Administering anti-inflammatory medication should only be done under the direction of a healthcare provider after assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.

3. What are the key considerations for managing a patient with COPD?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The key considerations for managing a patient with COPD include oxygen therapy, which is essential to maintain adequate oxygen saturation levels. While bronchodilators are commonly used to manage COPD symptoms, they are not the primary consideration. Smoking cessation is crucial in preventing further damage but is not a direct management consideration. Pulmonary rehabilitation is beneficial for improving exercise capacity and quality of life but is not as crucial as ensuring adequate oxygen therapy.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dependent edema. In right-sided heart failure, the heart is unable to effectively pump blood to the lungs for oxygenation, leading to fluid accumulation in the systemic circulation. This fluid backs up in the venous system, causing increased pressure in the veins of the body, resulting in dependent edema, usually starting in the lower extremities. Elevated blood glucose (choice A) is not directly related to right-sided heart failure. Decreased urine output (choice B) may occur in conditions like acute kidney injury but is not a specific finding of right-sided heart failure. Jaundice (choice D) is more commonly associated with liver dysfunction, not typically seen in right-sided heart failure.

5. What is the correct way to assess for pitting edema?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to assess for pitting edema is to press over a bony area, typically the tibia, for 5 seconds and then release. This allows for the identification of pitting edema, characterized by an indentation that persists for a few seconds. Choice B is incorrect as pitting edema assessment does not involve checking for discoloration. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of a rash is not indicative of pitting edema. Choice D is incorrect as rebound tenderness is a different assessment used for abdominal conditions, not for pitting edema.

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