what is the priority intervention when managing a client with delirium
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers

1. What is the priority intervention when managing a client with delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. Delirium is often caused by underlying issues such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. Addressing these root causes can help resolve delirium more effectively. Administering antipsychotic or sedative medications should not be the initial approach as they can worsen delirium in some cases. Providing a low-stimulation environment is beneficial but not the priority when reversible causes need to be addressed first.

2. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Muscle weakness.' Hypokalemia is characterized by low potassium levels, which can lead to muscle weakness due to impaired muscle function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other medical conditions and not typically expected in hypokalemia. Muscle stiffness is more commonly associated with conditions like tetany or muscle cramps, bradycardia is more commonly associated with issues like heart block or hypothyroidism, and hyperreflexia is more commonly seen in conditions like hyperthyroidism or spinal cord injuries.

3. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: The correct way to assess a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to monitor for leg pain, swelling, and redness. These are common clinical manifestations of DVT. Choice B is incorrect because administering anticoagulants should be based on a confirmed diagnosis, not just suspicion. Choice C is incorrect because discoloration and oxygen saturation are not primary indicators of DVT. Choice D is incorrect because numbness is not a typical symptom of DVT, and thrombolytic therapy is not the first-line treatment for suspected DVT.

4. A nurse is collecting data from a client who delivered a full-term newborn 16 hr ago. The nurse notes excessive lochia discharge. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing fundal massage is the priority action in this scenario. Fundal massage helps contract the uterus, which is essential in reducing excessive lochia postpartum. Administering oxytocin may be indicated later, but fundal massage should be the initial intervention to address the issue. Administering IV fluids may not directly address the cause of excessive lochia, and calling the provider should come after implementing immediate nursing interventions.

5. What action should the nurse take for a client struggling to void after having an indwelling catheter removed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to pour warm water over the client's perineum. This intervention helps stimulate urination after catheter removal by providing warmth and promoting relaxation of the muscles. Assessing for bladder distention after 2 hours (Choice A) is not the initial intervention to facilitate voiding. Encouraging the client to try urinating in a sitting position (Choice B) may be uncomfortable if the client is struggling to void. Restricting the client's fluid intake (Choice D) is not appropriate as it can further exacerbate the issue by concentrating the urine.

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