Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority intervention when managing a client with delirium?

• A. Administer antipsychotic medication to calm the client
• B. Identify any reversible causes of delirium
• C. Provide a low-stimulation environment
• D. Administer sedative medication to control agitation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. Delirium is often caused by underlying issues such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. Addressing these root causes can help resolve delirium more effectively. Administering antipsychotic or sedative medications should not be the initial approach as they can worsen delirium in some cases. Providing a low-stimulation environment is beneficial but not the priority when reversible causes need to be addressed first.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with dementia who is at risk of falls. What is the most appropriate intervention?

• A. Use a bed exit alarm to notify staff of attempts to leave the bed
• B. Raise all four side rails for safety
• C. Encourage frequent ambulation with assistance
• D. Use restraints to prevent the client from getting out of bed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with dementia at risk of falls is to use a bed exit alarm to notify staff of attempts to leave the bed. This intervention allows for timely assistance and prevents falls. Raising all four side rails (Choice B) can lead to entrapment or agitate the client. Encouraging frequent ambulation with assistance (Choice C) may not be suitable for a client at high risk of falls. Using restraints (Choice D) should be avoided as they can increase agitation, risk of injury, and have ethical implications.

3. Which of the following is an expected side effect of furosemide?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Increased urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Choice A, Bradycardia, is incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Choice C, Increased blood pressure, is incorrect as furosemide is actually used to lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume. Choice D, Increased urine output, is a common effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not an adverse side effect.

4. What are the early signs and symptoms of sepsis?

• A. Increased heart rate and fever
• B. Low blood pressure and confusion
• C. Rapid breathing and sweating
• D. Abdominal pain and cyanosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased heart rate and fever. In sepsis, an increased heart rate and fever are common early signs of systemic infection. While choices B, C, and D can be present in later stages of sepsis, they are not typically the initial signs. Low blood pressure and confusion may occur in severe sepsis or septic shock. Rapid breathing and sweating can be seen as sepsis progresses. Abdominal pain and cyanosis may develop as the condition advances but are not usually the earliest signs.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. WBC count.
• B. Serum potassium.
• C. Hemoglobin level.
• D. Serum creatinine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim works by stimulating the production of white blood cells. Therefore, monitoring the white blood cell (WBC) count is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B, serum potassium, is not directly affected by filgrastim therapy. Choice C, hemoglobin level, is important but not the primary indicator of filgrastim's effectiveness. Choice D, serum creatinine, is unrelated to the action of filgrastim and would not reflect its effectiveness.

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