ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. The client is anxious about the procedure.
- B. The client has not eaten for 8 hours.
- C. The client has a reported allergy to shellfish.
- D. The client has a platelet count of 100,000/mm³.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A platelet count of 100,000/mm³ is low and increases the risk of bleeding during the bronchoscopy. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical in this situation. Anxiety about the procedure is common and can be managed with appropriate interventions. Not eating for 8 hours is a standard pre-procedure requirement to prevent aspiration during sedation. A reported allergy to shellfish is important to note but is not directly related to the risk of complications during a bronchoscopy.
2. What are the early signs of diabetic ketoacidosis?
- A. Excessive thirst and fruity breath odor
- B. Weight loss and increased urination
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Hypoglycemia and fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Excessive thirst and fruity breath odor. Diabetic ketoacidosis presents with these early signs due to ketone buildup in the body. Choice B, weight loss and increased urination, are more characteristic of uncontrolled diabetes but not specific to diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, nausea and vomiting, can occur in diabetic ketoacidosis but are not as early or specific as excessive thirst and fruity breath odor. Choice D, hypoglycemia and fatigue, are not typical signs of diabetic ketoacidosis; rather, diabetic ketoacidosis usually presents with hyperglycemia.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Increase the client's protein intake
- B. Consult with a dietitian to improve the client's nutritional status
- C. Administer a protein supplement
- D. Monitor the client's fluid and electrolyte balance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Consulting with a dietitian is the priority as it ensures that the client receives a comprehensive nutritional assessment and an individualized plan to address the low serum albumin level and pressure ulcer. Increasing protein intake (choice A) and administering a protein supplement (choice C) may be part of the dietitian's recommendations but should not be done without proper assessment and guidance. Monitoring fluid and electrolyte balance (choice D) is important but not the first step in addressing the client's nutritional needs.
4. What are the early signs and symptoms of sepsis?
- A. Increased heart rate and fever
- B. Low blood pressure and confusion
- C. Rapid breathing and sweating
- D. Abdominal pain and cyanosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased heart rate and fever. In sepsis, an increased heart rate and fever are common early signs of systemic infection. While choices B, C, and D can be present in later stages of sepsis, they are not typically the initial signs. Low blood pressure and confusion may occur in severe sepsis or septic shock. Rapid breathing and sweating can be seen as sepsis progresses. Abdominal pain and cyanosis may develop as the condition advances but are not usually the earliest signs.
5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
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