Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. The client is anxious about the procedure.
• B. The client has not eaten for 8 hours.
• C. The client has a reported allergy to shellfish.
• D. The client has a platelet count of 100,000/mm³.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A platelet count of 100,000/mm³ is low and increases the risk of bleeding during the bronchoscopy. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical in this situation. Anxiety about the procedure is common and can be managed with appropriate interventions. Not eating for 8 hours is a standard pre-procedure requirement to prevent aspiration during sedation. A reported allergy to shellfish is important to note but is not directly related to the risk of complications during a bronchoscopy.

2. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with a fever?

• A. Administer antipyretics and monitor vital signs
• B. Provide cold compresses and ensure adequate hydration
• C. Encourage the patient to rest and increase fluid intake
• D. Restrict fluid intake and provide bed rest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When managing a patient with a fever, the appropriate approach involves administering antipyretics to reduce the fever and monitoring the patient's vital signs to assess their response to treatment. Administering antipyretics helps to lower the body temperature and manage fever symptoms effectively. Monitoring vital signs is crucial to ensure the patient's condition is improving. Providing cold compresses, as mentioned in choice B, can help in managing fever symptoms, but it does not address the root cause of the fever. Encouraging the patient to rest, as stated in choice C, is beneficial for recovery, but increasing fluid intake is essential to prevent dehydration. Restricting fluid intake and providing bed rest, as in choice D, can lead to dehydration and hinder the body's ability to fight off the infection causing the fever. Therefore, the best course of action for a healthcare provider is to administer antipyretics while closely monitoring the patient's vital signs.

3. A client post-surgery has a chest tube. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to perform?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 30 minutes every 4 hours
• B. Check for air leaks and ensure the chest tube is functioning properly
• C. Position the client in a high Fowler's position
• D. Encourage frequent coughing to clear secretions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check for air leaks and ensure the chest tube is functioning properly. This is crucial post-surgery to prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Clamping the chest tube, positioning the client, or encouraging coughing are not appropriate assessments for a client with a chest tube post-surgery and could lead to serious issues if done incorrectly.

4. A client has a prescription for ciprofloxacin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with an antacid if you experience gastrointestinal upset.
• B. You should limit your caffeine intake while taking this medication.
• C. This medication may cause your urine to turn dark brown.
• D. You should avoid taking this medication with dairy products.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'You should avoid taking this medication with dairy products.' Ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products as they can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because ciprofloxacin should not be taken with antacids containing aluminum or magnesium. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific limitation on caffeine intake associated with ciprofloxacin. Choice C is incorrect as ciprofloxacin does not typically cause urine to turn dark brown.

5. What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?

• A. Immobility and poor nutrition
• B. Increased mobility and proper hygiene
• C. Excess moisture and lack of movement
• D. Frequent turning and repositioning

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.

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