Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis via an AV fistula. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Avoid taking blood pressures on the arm with the AV fistula.
• B. Check the fistula site daily for pallor.
• C. Place a warm compress over the fistula site every 4 hours.
• D. Keep the client's arm elevated on two pillows.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to avoid taking blood pressures on the arm with the AV fistula. This is crucial to prevent complications such as damage to the fistula. Checking the fistula site for pallor is not as important as avoiding blood pressures on the affected arm. Placing warm compresses over the fistula site is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Keeping the client's arm elevated on two pillows is not necessary for the care of an AV fistula.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. HbA1c level greater than 8%.
• B. Blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime.
• C. Blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast.
• D. HbA1c level less than 7%.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An HbA1c level less than 7% indicates good long-term glucose control for clients with diabetes. This goal reflects optimal glycemic control and reduces the risk of long-term complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent appropriate goals for managing type 1 diabetes in an adolescent. An HbA1c level greater than 8% (choice A) signifies poor glucose control, while a blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime (choice B) and a blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast (choice C) are not within the target ranges for safe and effective diabetes management.

3. A nurse is providing care for a client with dementia who frequently wanders. What is the best strategy to ensure their safety?

• A. Use restraints to prevent wandering
• B. Encourage the client to walk in a monitored area
• C. Place a bed exit alarm system
• D. Ask family members to stay with the client at all times

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best strategy to ensure the safety of a client with dementia who frequently wanders is to place a bed exit alarm system. This system alerts staff when the client attempts to leave the bed, reducing the risk of falls. Choice A, using restraints, is not the best approach as it can lead to complications and is not recommended unless absolutely necessary. Choice B, encouraging the client to walk in a monitored area, may not be effective in preventing wandering as the client may still wander away. Choice D, asking family members to stay with the client at all times, may not be feasible or practical, especially for round-the-clock supervision.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication has been effective?

• A. Cardiac workload decreases
• B. Blood pressure increases
• C. Respiratory rate increases
• D. Temperature decreases

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac workload decreases. Digoxin helps reduce cardiac workload in clients with heart failure, improving symptoms. This reduction in workload indicates that the medication is effective. Choice B, blood pressure increases, is incorrect because digoxin typically does not directly affect blood pressure. Choice C, respiratory rate increases, is incorrect as an increased respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of digoxin effectiveness. Choice D, temperature decreases, is also incorrect as digoxin does not typically affect body temperature.

5. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What should the nurse do immediately?

• A. Apply a warm compress over the IV site
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Monitor the site for signs of infection
• D. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the immediate action the nurse should take is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications such as infection, thrombosis, or sepsis. Removing the IV line helps prevent further irritation and infection. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) may provide some relief but does not address the root cause. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice C) is important but not the immediate action needed to address phlebitis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice D) may be prescribed by the provider but is not the first step in managing phlebitis.

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