ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis via an AV fistula. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Avoid taking blood pressures on the arm with the AV fistula.
- B. Check the fistula site daily for pallor.
- C. Place a warm compress over the fistula site every 4 hours.
- D. Keep the client's arm elevated on two pillows.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention is to avoid taking blood pressures on the arm with the AV fistula. This is crucial to prevent complications such as damage to the fistula. Checking the fistula site for pallor is not as important as avoiding blood pressures on the affected arm. Placing warm compresses over the fistula site is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Keeping the client's arm elevated on two pillows is not necessary for the care of an AV fistula.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse?
- A. Increase in frequency of swallowing.
- B. Moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad.
- C. Bruising to the face.
- D. Absent gag reflex.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in frequency of swallowing. After rhinoplasty, an increase in frequency of swallowing may indicate possible bleeding, which requires immediate action by the nurse. The client could be experiencing postoperative bleeding, and prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications. Choice B, moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad, is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require immediate action unless it becomes excessive. Choice C, bruising to the face, is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate action unless it is excessive or affects the airway. Choice D, absent gag reflex, would not be expected immediately following rhinoplasty and would require intervention, but the manifestation of increased swallowing frequency is a higher priority due to its association with potential bleeding.
3. A client has a prescription for ciprofloxacin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with an antacid if you experience gastrointestinal upset.
- B. You should limit your caffeine intake while taking this medication.
- C. This medication may cause your urine to turn dark brown.
- D. You should avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'You should avoid taking this medication with dairy products.' Ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products as they can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because ciprofloxacin should not be taken with antacids containing aluminum or magnesium. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific limitation on caffeine intake associated with ciprofloxacin. Choice C is incorrect as ciprofloxacin does not typically cause urine to turn dark brown.
4. What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?
- A. Immobility and poor nutrition
- B. Increased mobility and proper hygiene
- C. Excess moisture and lack of movement
- D. Frequent turning and repositioning
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a sign of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat heart failure, works by slowing down the heart rate and increasing the force of heart contractions. Excessive levels of digoxin can lead to toxicity, causing bradycardia (slow heart rate), among other symptoms. Tachycardia (fast heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite is not a recognized sign of digoxin toxicity; instead, gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and anorexia are more common.
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