ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis via an AV fistula. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Avoid taking blood pressures on the arm with the AV fistula.
- B. Check the fistula site daily for pallor.
- C. Place a warm compress over the fistula site every 4 hours.
- D. Keep the client's arm elevated on two pillows.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention is to avoid taking blood pressures on the arm with the AV fistula. This is crucial to prevent complications such as damage to the fistula. Checking the fistula site for pallor is not as important as avoiding blood pressures on the affected arm. Placing warm compresses over the fistula site is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Keeping the client's arm elevated on two pillows is not necessary for the care of an AV fistula.
2. Which of the following is the best strategy for managing dehydration in a client?
- A. Encourage the client to drink more water
- B. Monitor fluid and electrolyte levels frequently
- C. Administer oral rehydration solutions
- D. Increase the IV fluid rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best strategy for managing dehydration in a client is to monitor fluid and electrolyte levels frequently. This allows healthcare providers to assess the client's hydration status accurately and make informed decisions regarding treatment. Encouraging the client to drink more water (Choice A) may not be sufficient if the dehydration is severe and requires specific interventions. Administering oral rehydration solutions (Choice C) can be beneficial but should be guided by monitoring the client's condition. Increasing the IV fluid rate (Choice D) may be necessary in certain cases, but it is not always the initial or best approach, as monitoring is crucial to avoid fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?
- A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
- B. HDL level of 90 mg/dL
- C. Norton scale score of 18
- D. Braden scale score of 20
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.
4. Which dietary restriction should be taught to a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods
- B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
- C. Encourage increased protein intake
- D. Increase fluid intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit phosphorus and potassium intake. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter these minerals from the blood, leading to their accumulation and potential complications. Restricting phosphorus and potassium intake is crucial in managing the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can worsen the condition. Choice C is also incorrect as excessive protein intake can put more strain on the kidneys. Choice D is not the priority; rather, fluid intake should be monitored based on individual needs and stage of kidney disease.
5. What are the key signs of hyperkalemia and how should it be treated?
- A. Elevated potassium levels, muscle weakness; administer calcium gluconate
- B. Decreased potassium levels, confusion; administer potassium chloride
- C. Elevated sodium levels, bradycardia; administer sodium bicarbonate
- D. Low sodium levels, muscle cramps; administer sodium chloride
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct signs of hyperkalemia include elevated potassium levels and muscle weakness. The treatment involves administering calcium gluconate to help stabilize the heart. Choice B is incorrect as hyperkalemia is characterized by elevated, not decreased, potassium levels. Choice C is incorrect as hyperkalemia does not involve elevated sodium levels, and the treatment is not sodium bicarbonate. Choice D is incorrect as hyperkalemia does not lead to low sodium levels, and sodium chloride is not the treatment for hyperkalemia.
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