Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has diabetes mellitus and is receiving insulin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Hemoglobin A1c of 6%
• B. Fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL
• C. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• D. Blood glucose of 100 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia and should be reported for potential insulin adjustment.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

• A. Client reports nausea.
• B. Urinary output of 20 mL/hr.
• C. Oxygen saturation 90%.
• D. Respiratory rate 14/min.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is below the expected reference range and could indicate respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. This finding requires immediate attention as it may lead to hypoxia. Nausea (choice A) is a common side effect of morphine but does not pose an immediate threat. A urinary output of 20 mL/hr (choice B) may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as critical as respiratory compromise. A respiratory rate of 14/min (choice D) is within the normal range and does not suggest immediate danger.

3. Which of the following is an expected side effect of furosemide?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Increased urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Choice A, Bradycardia, is incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Choice C, Increased blood pressure, is incorrect as furosemide is actually used to lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume. Choice D, Increased urine output, is a common effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not an adverse side effect.

4. A client has a new diagnosis of Raynaud's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
• B. Keep your home environment warm.
• C. Elevate your legs when sitting.
• D. Reduce your intake of sodium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the home environment warm. Raynaud's disease causes vasospasm in response to cold, so maintaining a warm environment can help prevent attacks. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium intake, elevating legs when sitting, or reducing sodium intake are not specific to managing Raynaud's disease.

5. What are the early signs of heart failure in a patient?

• A. Shortness of breath and weight gain
• B. Fatigue and chest pain
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Cough and elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shortness of breath and weight gain. Early signs of heart failure typically manifest as shortness of breath due to fluid accumulation in the lungs and weight gain due to fluid retention in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fatigue and chest pain are symptoms commonly associated with heart conditions but are not specific early signs of heart failure. Nausea and vomiting are not typically early signs of heart failure. Cough can be a symptom of heart failure, but it is usually associated with other symptoms like shortness of breath rather than being an isolated early sign. Elevated blood pressure is not an early sign of heart failure; in fact, heart failure is more commonly associated with low blood pressure.

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