Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply heat to the affected area
• B. Place the client in a prone position
• C. Turn and reposition the client every 2 hours
• D. Provide the client with a bedpan every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client at risk for pressure ulcers is to turn and reposition the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and reducing the risk of pressure ulcer development. Applying heat to the affected area (Choice A) can increase the risk of skin breakdown. Placing the client in a prone position (Choice B) can also increase pressure on certain areas, leading to pressure ulcers. Providing the client with a bedpan every 4 hours (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing pressure ulcers.

2. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with fluid volume deficit?

• A. Encourage oral fluid intake
• B. Administer IV fluids as ordered
• C. Monitor urine output and check electrolyte levels
• D. Monitor skin turgor and capillary refill

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging oral fluid intake is a crucial nursing intervention in managing a patient with fluid volume deficit. By encouraging oral fluid intake, the patient can increase hydration levels, helping to correct the deficit. Administering IV fluids may be necessary in severe cases or when the patient is unable to tolerate oral intake. Monitoring urine output and checking electrolyte levels are essential aspects of assessing fluid volume status, but they are not direct interventions for correcting fluid volume deficit. Monitoring skin turgor and capillary refill are important assessments for fluid volume status but are not direct management strategies.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?

• A. Decerebrate posturing.
• B. Hypervigilance.
• C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.

4. A client is given morphine 6 mg IV push for postoperative pain. Following administration of this drug, the nurse observes the following: pulse 68, respirations 8, BP 100/68, client sleeping quietly. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?

• A. Allow the client to sleep undisturbed
• B. Administer oxygen via facemask or nasal prongs
• C. Administer naloxone (Narcan)
• D. Place epinephrine 1:1,000 at the bedside

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer naloxone (Narcan). The client's vital signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of morphine. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, particularly to restore normal respiratory function. Administering oxygen alone (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of respiratory depression. Allowing the client to sleep undisturbed (Choice A) is inappropriate when signs of respiratory depression are present. Epinephrine (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and is not used to reverse opioid effects.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings indicates a hemolytic transfusion reaction?

• A. Chills
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Low back pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Low back pain is a classic sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction and requires immediate intervention. Chills are more commonly associated with a febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction. Bradycardia is not a typical sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Hypertension is not a common finding in a hemolytic transfusion reaction.

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