ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. What are the key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia?
- A. Hypoglycemia: Sweating, trembling; Hyperglycemia: Frequent urination, thirst
- B. Hypoglycemia: Increased thirst; Hyperglycemia: Sweating, confusion
- C. Hypoglycemia: Increased appetite; Hyperglycemia: Blurred vision
- D. Hypoglycemia: Dizziness; Hyperglycemia: Low blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hypoglycemia typically presents with sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia is characterized by frequent urination and thirst. Therefore, the correct key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are that hypoglycemia includes symptoms like sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia involves symptoms such as frequent urination and thirst. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the characteristic symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, as stated in the question.
2. A nurse has agreed to serve as an interpreter for an older adult client who is assigned to another nurse. Which of the following statements by the nurse indicates an understanding of this role?
- A. I will let the client know that I am available as the interpreter.
- B. I will receive a small fee for interpreting for this client.
- C. I am glad I am available today, but when I am not, you can use a family member.
- D. I will let the client know that an interpreter is unavailable during the night shift.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because the nurse should inform the client of their availability to interpret, ensuring that communication is clear and culturally appropriate. Choice B is incorrect as interpreters in healthcare settings usually do not receive fees for providing interpretation services. Choice C is incorrect because suggesting the use of a family member as an interpreter may not ensure accurate communication, as they may not be trained or impartial. Choice D is incorrect because stating that an interpreter is unavailable during the night shift does not address the current situation where the nurse has agreed to interpret for the client.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is receiving insulin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. A fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL
- B. A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL
- C. A hemoglobin A1c of 6%
- D. A fasting blood glucose of 100 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which may necessitate insulin adjustment to better control the client's blood sugar levels. A fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL (choice A) is within the normal range, a hemoglobin A1c of 6% (choice C) is indicative of good long-term blood sugar control, and a fasting blood glucose of 100 mg/dL (choice D) is also within the normal range. Therefore, these findings do not require immediate reporting to the provider.
4. A nurse is caring for a client post-abdominal surgery who has an NG tube. The client reports nausea and a decrease in gastric output. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Turn the client onto their left side
- B. Irrigate the NG tube with sterile water
- C. Increase the suction pressure to relieve the blockage
- D. Remove the NG tube and replace it with a new one
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to irrigate the NG tube with sterile water first. This action helps to relieve blockages that may be causing the decrease in gastric output and nausea. Turning the client onto their left side may not directly address the issue with the NG tube. Increasing the suction pressure can further exacerbate the problem and should not be done without assessing the situation first. Removing the NG tube and replacing it with a new one is a more invasive step that should be considered only if other measures are unsuccessful.
5. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Elevated blood pressure.
- B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
- C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access