Nursing Elites

1. What are the key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia?

• A. Hypoglycemia: Sweating, trembling; Hyperglycemia: Frequent urination, thirst
• B. Hypoglycemia: Increased thirst; Hyperglycemia: Sweating, confusion
• C. Hypoglycemia: Increased appetite; Hyperglycemia: Blurred vision
• D. Hypoglycemia: Dizziness; Hyperglycemia: Low blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypoglycemia typically presents with sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia is characterized by frequent urination and thirst. Therefore, the correct key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are that hypoglycemia includes symptoms like sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia involves symptoms such as frequent urination and thirst. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the characteristic symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, as stated in the question.

2. A nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions with the parent of an infant who has rotavirus. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid feeding my baby for 12 hours
• B. I will apply diaper cream during each diaper change
• C. I will give my baby water between feedings
• D. I will apply warm compresses for my baby's comfort

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Applying diaper cream during each diaper change is important to prevent skin breakdown in infants with rotavirus. Rotavirus can cause diarrhea, which can lead to skin irritation. Avoiding feeding the baby for 12 hours (choice A) can lead to dehydration and is not appropriate. Giving water between feedings (choice C) can further contribute to dehydration. Applying warm compresses (choice D) may provide comfort but does not address the specific issue of preventing skin breakdown associated with rotavirus.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Hyperactivity
• B. Hypervigilance
• C. Restlessness
• D. Avoidance of social situations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypervigilance. Individuals with PTSD often experience hypervigilance, which involves being overly alert, easily startled, and constantly scanning their environment for potential threats. This heightened state of awareness is a common response to the trauma experienced. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity is not typically a primary manifestation of PTSD; restlessness may occur but is not as characteristic as hypervigilance, and although avoidance of social situations can be a symptom of PTSD, hypervigilance is more directly associated with the disorder.

4. A client with an NG tube is experiencing nausea and a decrease in gastric secretions. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Position the client on their left side
• B. Irrigate the NG tube with sterile water
• C. Replace the NG tube with a new one
• D. Increase the suction setting to relieve the blockage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for a client with an NG tube experiencing nausea and decreased gastric secretions is to irrigate the NG tube with sterile water. This can help clear any blockages in the tube, which may be causing the symptoms. Positioning the client on their left side may be helpful for enteral feedings but is not the priority in this situation. Replacing the NG tube should not be the initial step unless irrigation fails to resolve the issue. Increasing the suction setting without attempting to clear the blockage can be harmful to the client.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

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