a nurse is collecting data from a male client who is scheduled for a left inguinal herniorrhaphy which of the following findings is the priority for t
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers

1. A nurse is collecting data from a male client who is scheduled for a left inguinal herniorrhaphy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Difficulty urinating.' This finding is crucial to report promptly as it can indicate a complication, such as urinary retention or injury to the urinary tract, which are significant concerns post-hernia surgery. High blood pressure (Choice A) may require monitoring but is not as urgent as difficulty urinating. Decreased bowel sounds (Choice B) and constipation (Choice C) are common after surgery and may resolve with appropriate interventions but are not as critical as addressing difficulty urinating.

2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Shuffling gait. A shuffling gait can indicate extrapyramidal symptoms, a potentially serious side effect of haloperidol. Extrapyramidal symptoms include movement disorders such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as urgent or indicative of serious complications compared to a shuffling gait.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.

4. Which of the following is a key consideration when providing wound care for a client with a pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a wound culture before applying ointment is crucial when providing wound care for a client with a pressure ulcer. This step helps identify the presence of any infection, allowing for appropriate treatment. Choice A is incorrect because covering the wound with a dry, sterile dressing may not address potential infections. Choice C is incorrect as cleansing the wound with alcohol can be too harsh and drying to the surrounding skin. Choice D is incorrect because covering the wound with a wet-to-dry dressing is not typically recommended for pressure ulcers, as it can cause trauma to the wound bed during removal.

5. Which dietary advice should a healthcare provider provide to a client with acute gout?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct dietary advice for a client with acute gout is to limit the intake of red meat and shellfish. These foods are high in purines, which can lead to increased uric acid levels in the body, exacerbating gout symptoms. Dairy products, fresh fruits, and vegetables are generally recommended for individuals with gout as they can help lower uric acid levels. Fruit juices and milk, in moderation, can also be part of a gout-friendly diet as they do not significantly contribute to uric acid buildup.

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