Nursing Elites

1. What are the primary causes of respiratory acidosis?

• A. Hypoventilation and lung disease
• B. Hyperventilation and pneumonia
• C. Increased oxygen saturation and tachypnea
• D. Dehydration and hypoxia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypoventilation and lung disease. Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is an accumulation of CO2 in the body due to inadequate ventilation. Hypoventilation, which reduces the elimination of CO2, and lung diseases that impair gas exchange are the primary causes. Choice B is incorrect because hyperventilation, not hypoventilation, leads to respiratory alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice C is incorrect because increased oxygen saturation and tachypnea do not directly cause respiratory acidosis. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration and hypoxia do not typically lead to respiratory acidosis.

2. A client with dementia is at risk of falling. What is the best intervention to prevent injury?

• A. Place the client in a room close to the nurses' station
• B. Use a bed exit alarm
• C. Encourage family members to stay with the client at all times
• D. Raise all four side rails

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using a bed exit alarm is the best intervention to prevent injury in a client with dementia at risk of falling. This device alerts staff when the client attempts to leave the bed, allowing for timely assistance and reducing the risk of falls. Placing the client in a room close to the nurses' station may help with supervision but does not provide immediate alerts like a bed exit alarm. Encouraging family members to stay with the client at all times may not be feasible, and raising all four side rails can lead to restraint issues and is not recommended unless necessary for the client's safety.

3. The nurse is caring for a manic client in the seclusion room, and it is time for lunch. It is MOST appropriate for the nurse to take which of the following actions?

• A. Take the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision
• B. Inform the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior
• C. Hold the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion
• D. Serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the manic client is in the seclusion room, and it is most appropriate for the nurse to serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room. This action helps maintain the client's nutritional needs while managing their behavior. Taking the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision (Choice A) may pose safety risks both for the client and others. Informing the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior (Choice B) may not be feasible in a manic state. Holding the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion (Choice C) can lead to nutritional deficiencies and does not address the immediate need for nutrition during the episode of mania.

4. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with sepsis?

• A. Administer IV antibiotics
• B. Monitor vital signs
• C. Administer fluids
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Managing a patient with sepsis requires a multi-faceted approach. Administering IV antibiotics is crucial to combat the underlying infection. Monitoring vital signs such as heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and temperature helps assess the patient's response to treatment and identify any deterioration. Administering fluids is essential to maintain adequate blood pressure and organ perfusion. Therefore, all the options are integral components of sepsis management, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all essential in the comprehensive care of a patient with sepsis. Omitting any of these aspects can lead to suboptimal outcomes, as each plays a critical role in addressing different aspects of sepsis management.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings indicates a hemolytic transfusion reaction?

• A. Chills
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Low back pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Low back pain is a classic sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction and requires immediate intervention. Chills are more commonly associated with a febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction. Bradycardia is not a typical sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Hypertension is not a common finding in a hemolytic transfusion reaction.

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