Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority intervention for sepsis?

• A. Administer IV antibiotics
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Administer fluids
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the management of sepsis, prompt intervention is crucial. Administering IV antibiotics is essential to target the underlying infection. Monitoring blood pressure helps assess the patient's hemodynamic status. Administering fluids is vital to maintain adequate perfusion. Therefore, all the options are integral components of the initial management of sepsis, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choosing any single intervention over the others may delay optimal care and compromise patient outcomes.

2. What should a healthcare professional assess in a patient presenting with symptoms of a stroke?

• A. Assess facial drooping
• B. Monitor speech difficulties
• C. Evaluate arm weakness
• D. Check for time of onset of symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected stroke symptoms, it is crucial to check for facial drooping as it can be a sign of facial nerve weakness, which is a common indicator of stroke. While monitoring speech difficulties and evaluating arm weakness are also important assessments in stroke cases, they are secondary to facial drooping. Checking for the time of onset of symptoms is essential to determine eligibility for time-sensitive treatments like thrombolytic therapy, but when prioritizing assessments, facial drooping takes precedence.

3. What are the early signs of a pulmonary embolism?

• A. Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia
• B. Fever, nausea, and vomiting
• C. Cough, cyanosis, and fatigue
• D. Abdominal pain and bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia. These are classic early signs of a pulmonary embolism. Chest pain may be sudden and sharp, worsened by deep breathing or coughing. Shortness of breath can be sudden and severe. Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) is another common symptom. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent typical early signs of a pulmonary embolism.

4. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
• C. Encourage protein-rich foods to improve nutrition
• D. Increase calcium-rich foods in the diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus and potassium intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. In renal insufficiency, the kidneys struggle to excrete these minerals, leading to their buildup in the blood, which can be harmful. Limiting phosphorus and potassium intake helps prevent further kidney damage and manage the progression of chronic kidney disease. Encouraging protein-rich foods (Choice C) may be counterproductive as excessive protein intake can burden the kidneys. Increasing potassium-rich foods (Choice A) is incorrect as high potassium levels can be detrimental in kidney disease. Increasing calcium-rich foods (Choice D) is not typically a focus in dietary teaching for chronic kidney disease unless there is a specific deficiency or need, as excessive calcium intake can also be harmful to kidney function.

5. A client is to start taking furosemide and is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend to the client?

• A. Cabbage
• B. Bananas
• C. Carrots
• D. Potatoes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which helps counter the potassium-depleting effects of furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so including potassium-rich foods like bananas in the diet can help maintain a healthy potassium level. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically address the potassium needs associated with furosemide therapy and are not the most appropriate recommendations in this context.

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