Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to prevent complications?

• A. Check the client's oxygen saturation every 2 hours
• B. Provide humidified oxygen
• C. Instruct the client to perform deep breathing exercises
• D. Use an oxygen mask for delivery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide humidified oxygen. Providing humidified oxygen helps prevent dryness and irritation of the respiratory tract during oxygen therapy. This intervention is crucial in preventing complications such as mucous membrane dryness and potential damage to the airways. Checking the client's oxygen saturation every 2 hours (choice A) is essential for monitoring the client's response to therapy but does not directly prevent complications. Instructing the client to perform deep breathing exercises (choice C) is beneficial for respiratory function but does not directly address preventing complications related to oxygen therapy. Using an oxygen mask for delivery (choice D) is a common method of administering oxygen but does not specifically focus on preventing complications like dryness and irritation.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

• A. Total bilirubin.
• B. Urine ketones.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client with dementia. Which of the following findings should the nurse address first?

• A. Restlessness and agitation
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Wandering during the night
• D. Incontinence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with dementia, addressing restlessness and agitation is a priority because these symptoms can exacerbate dementia and lead to further complications. Restlessness and agitation can indicate underlying issues such as pain, discomfort, or unmet needs, which should be promptly assessed and managed to improve the client's quality of life. Decreased respiratory rate, wandering during the night, and incontinence are important to address but do not pose immediate risks to the client's well-being compared to the potential effects of unmanaged restlessness and agitation in dementia.

4. What is the first step in managing a client with delirium?

• A. Administer sedative medication to calm the client
• B. Identify any reversible causes of delirium
• C. Limit environmental stimulation to reduce anxiety
• D. Administer antipsychotic medication to control behavior

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with delirium is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. This is crucial because addressing the underlying cause can help in resolving delirium more effectively. Administering sedative or antipsychotic medications without addressing the root cause may not be helpful and can even worsen the condition. Limiting environmental stimulation, although important, is not the primary step in managing delirium.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
• C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

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