Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has dumping syndrome about measures to reduce manifestations. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Drink plenty of fluids after meals
• B. Increase sugar intake
• C. Eat smaller, more frequent meals
• D. Avoid foods high in sugar content

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in teaching a client with dumping syndrome is to 'Avoid foods high in sugar content.' Dumping syndrome occurs when high-sugar foods move too quickly into the small intestine, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramps, diarrhea, and bloating. By avoiding foods high in sugar content, the client can reduce these symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Drinking plenty of fluids after meals may exacerbate symptoms by speeding up the movement of food through the digestive system. Increasing sugar intake would worsen dumping syndrome symptoms. While eating smaller, more frequent meals is a good strategy, the key emphasis should be on avoiding high-sugar foods.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Zolpidem
• C. Morphine
• D. Lorazepam

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.

3. A nurse on an acute unit has received a change of shift report for 4 clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who is 1 hr postoperative and has hypoactive bowel sounds.
• B. A client who has a fractured left tibia and pallor in the affected extremity.
• C. A client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses.
• D. A client who has an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because pallor in an extremity after a fracture could indicate compromised circulation, making it a priority for assessment. Choice A is not the priority as hypoactive bowel sounds in a client 1 hr postoperative, while concerning, do not indicate a life-threatening condition. Choice C, a client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses, indicates good perfusion and does not require immediate attention. Choice D, a client with an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin, may require further assessment but is not as urgent as the client with potential compromised circulation in choice B.

4. Which type of infectious diseases are required to be reported to the health department?

• A. Staphylococcus aureus infections, including MRSA
• B. Severe cases of flu-like symptoms
• C. Common colds and non-severe respiratory infections
• D. Only contagious diseases like meningitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus infections, including MRSA. Severe infections like MRSA are required to be reported to the health department as they pose a significant public health risk. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because severe flu-like symptoms, common colds, and non-severe respiratory infections, and only contagious diseases like meningitis do not fall under the category of infectious diseases that must be reported to the health department.

5. What are the complications of untreated hypertension?

• A. Heart disease and stroke
• B. Kidney failure and vision loss
• C. Pulmonary embolism and arrhythmias
• D. Blood clots and gastrointestinal bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Heart disease and stroke.' Untreated hypertension can lead to various complications, including heart disease and stroke. These are common outcomes of long-term high blood pressure. Choice B, 'Kidney failure and vision loss,' is incorrect as kidney failure and vision loss are more commonly associated with diabetic complications rather than untreated hypertension. Choice C, 'Pulmonary embolism and arrhythmias,' while serious, are not among the primary complications of untreated hypertension. Choice D, 'Blood clots and gastrointestinal bleeding,' are not typical complications of untreated hypertension but can occur due to other conditions such as blood clotting disorders or gastrointestinal diseases.

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