ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020
1. A client is using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) for asthma management. Which of the following actions by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Inhale rapidly through the mouth after pressing down on the inhaler
- B. Exhale completely before pressing down on the inhaler
- C. Hold your breath for 5-10 seconds after inhaling
- D. Inhale slowly while pressing down on the inhaler
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to hold your breath for 5-10 seconds after inhaling when using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) for asthma management. This action ensures proper medication absorption in the lungs. Inhaling rapidly (choice A) may cause the medication to impact the mouth/throat rather than the lungs. Exhaling completely before inhalation (choice B) does not optimize medication delivery. Inhaling slowly (choice D) may not allow the medication to reach the lungs effectively.
2. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer antiemetic medication before meals
- B. Encourage the client to eat small, frequent meals
- C. Instruct the client to avoid eating during treatment
- D. Provide the client with cold beverages during meals
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiemetic medication before meals. When a client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting, administering antiemetic medication before meals is a priority intervention to help reduce nausea associated with chemotherapy. This proactive approach can prevent or minimize the symptoms, improving the client's quality of life during treatment. Choice B is incorrect because while encouraging the client to eat small, frequent meals can be helpful, administering antiemetic medication is the priority to address the immediate symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding eating during treatment may lead to nutritional deficits, and choice D is incorrect because providing cold beverages during meals may not effectively address the nausea and vomiting symptoms.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical history of a client with dementia. Which of the following findings should be addressed immediately?
- A. Frequent episodes of wandering at night
- B. Restlessness and agitation
- C. Mild confusion during the day
- D. Incontinence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Restlessness and agitation in clients with dementia should be addressed immediately as they can indicate underlying causes such as pain, discomfort, or unmet needs. Addressing these symptoms promptly can help prevent the escalation of behavioral issues and improve the client's quality of life. While frequent episodes of wandering at night, mild confusion during the day, and incontinence are also important issues to address in clients with dementia, restlessness and agitation usually require immediate attention to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.
4. What are the primary causes of respiratory acidosis?
- A. Hypoventilation and lung disease
- B. Hyperventilation and pneumonia
- C. Increased oxygen saturation and tachypnea
- D. Dehydration and hypoxia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypoventilation and lung disease. Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is an accumulation of CO2 in the body due to inadequate ventilation. Hypoventilation, which reduces the elimination of CO2, and lung diseases that impair gas exchange are the primary causes. Choice B is incorrect because hyperventilation, not hypoventilation, leads to respiratory alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice C is incorrect because increased oxygen saturation and tachypnea do not directly cause respiratory acidosis. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration and hypoxia do not typically lead to respiratory acidosis.
5. What is the first step in assessing a patient with suspected stroke?
- A. Check for facial droop
- B. Assess speech clarity
- C. Perform a neurological assessment
- D. Call for emergency assistance
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to call for emergency assistance (Option D) when assessing a patient with suspected stroke. Time is crucial in stroke management, and activating emergency services promptly can ensure timely access to specialized care such as stroke units and treatments like thrombolytic therapy. Checking for facial droop (Option A), assessing speech clarity (Option B), and performing a neurological assessment (Option C) are important steps in evaluating a stroke but should follow the immediate action of calling for emergency assistance. These initial assessments can help confirm the suspicion of a stroke and provide valuable information to healthcare providers when they arrive. However, the priority is to ensure the patient receives appropriate care without delay by activating emergency services.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access