a client with dementia frequently becomes agitated what should the nurse prioritize investigating
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN

1. When a client with dementia frequently becomes agitated, what should the nurse prioritize investigating?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to prioritize investigating the client's medication history. This is important because certain medications can contribute to agitation in clients with dementia. Understanding the medication history can help identify potential causes of agitation and guide appropriate interventions. Checking for fluid and electrolyte imbalances is important in healthcare but may not directly relate to the client's agitation. While environmental factors can influence behavior, investigating the medication history is more pertinent in this case. Cognitive functioning assessment is crucial in dementia care but may not be the priority when addressing acute agitation.

2. What is the first step in managing a patient with a suspected pneumothorax?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to insert a chest tube. In managing a patient with a suspected pneumothorax, the priority is to relieve the pressure from the pneumothorax by inserting a chest tube. Monitoring respiratory status (choice B) is important but comes after ensuring proper management of the pneumothorax. Administering oxygen (choice C) can help support oxygenation but does not address the underlying issue of pressure in the thoracic cavity. Calling for assistance (choice D) can be done concurrently with managing the pneumothorax, but the immediate intervention to address the pneumothorax itself is chest tube insertion.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in frequency of swallowing. After rhinoplasty, an increase in frequency of swallowing may indicate possible bleeding, which requires immediate action by the nurse. The client could be experiencing postoperative bleeding, and prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications. Choice B, moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad, is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require immediate action unless it becomes excessive. Choice C, bruising to the face, is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate action unless it is excessive or affects the airway. Choice D, absent gag reflex, would not be expected immediately following rhinoplasty and would require intervention, but the manifestation of increased swallowing frequency is a higher priority due to its association with potential bleeding.

5. What is the most important intervention when managing a client with delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Identify any reversible causes of delirium.' When managing a client with delirium, it is crucial to first identify and address any reversible factors contributing to the delirium. Administering sedatives (Choice A) may worsen delirium and is not the primary intervention. Increasing environmental stimulation (Choice C) can exacerbate symptoms. Limiting noise and providing a calm environment (Choice D) are beneficial but not as crucial as identifying reversible causes.

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