Nursing Elites

1. What is the role of a nurse in managing a patient with kidney disease?

• A. Monitor blood pressure and provide dietary education
• B. Monitor urine output and provide IV fluids
• C. Administer diuretics and restrict fluid intake
• D. Monitor for cardiac arrhythmias and provide dialysis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nurses play a crucial role in managing patients with kidney disease by monitoring blood pressure and providing essential dietary education. This helps in maintaining kidney function and overall health. Choice B is incorrect because monitoring urine output and providing IV fluids are tasks usually performed by healthcare providers such as physicians or specialized staff. Choice C is incorrect as administering diuretics and restricting fluid intake are typically prescribed by a physician, and nurses may assist in monitoring the effects. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring for cardiac arrhythmias and providing dialysis are tasks that are usually overseen by healthcare providers with specialized training in cardiology and nephrology.

2. A client with a sprained right ankle is learning to walk with a cane. What action demonstrates effective teaching?

• A. The client advances the cane 18 inches in front of the foot
• B. The client holds the cane in the left hand
• C. The client advances the cane and the right leg simultaneously
• D. The client holds the cane with the elbow flexed at 60°

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has a sprained right ankle, they should hold the cane in the opposite hand (left hand) to the affected leg for better support and balance. This positioning helps to reduce the weight on the injured leg while providing stability. Option A is incorrect because advancing the cane too far in front can lead to loss of balance. Option C is incorrect as it does not provide the necessary support for the injured leg. Option D is incorrect as the elbow should be slightly flexed but not necessarily at a specific angle.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. HDL level of 90 mg/dL
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Braden scale score of 20

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.

4. What are the signs of hypoglycemia, and how should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing this condition?

• A. Shakiness or Tremors
• B. Confusion or Irritability
• C. Hunger
• D. Dizziness or Lightheadedness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs of hypoglycemia include shakiness, confusion, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness. However, the classic and most common early sign is shakiness or tremors. When a patient is experiencing hypoglycemia, a healthcare provider should respond promptly by administering glucose to raise the blood sugar levels. Choice A is correct as it directly addresses one of the primary signs of hypoglycemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while confusion, irritability, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness can also be signs of hypoglycemia, shakiness or tremors are the classic and most common early symptoms that healthcare providers should be particularly vigilant for.

5. A nurse is working in an acute care mental health facility and is assessing a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. All-or-nothing thinking.
• B. Euphoric mood.
• C. Disorganized speech.
• D. Hypochondriasis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Disorganized speech. Disorganized speech is a hallmark symptom of schizophrenia, characterized by impaired thought processes that lead to incoherent, disjointed communication. All-or-nothing thinking (Choice A) is more commonly associated with cognitive distortions seen in conditions like anxiety disorders. Euphoric mood (Choice B) is not a typical finding in schizophrenia, as individuals with this disorder often display a flat or blunted affect. Hypochondriasis (Choice D) involves a preoccupation with having a serious illness and is not a primary symptom of schizophrenia.

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