what is the most important intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers

1. What is the most important intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is crucial in managing a patient experiencing respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy helps to improve oxygen levels in the blood, supporting vital organ functions. While monitoring airway patency is important, administering oxygen takes precedence in ensuring the patient receives an adequate oxygen supply. Providing bronchodilators may be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions, but the immediate priority in distress is to address oxygenation. Calling for assistance is essential, but the immediate intervention to support the patient's respiratory function is administering oxygen.

2. What are the early signs of diabetic ketoacidosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Excessive thirst and fruity breath odor. Diabetic ketoacidosis presents with these early signs due to ketone buildup in the body. Choice B, weight loss and increased urination, are more characteristic of uncontrolled diabetes but not specific to diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, nausea and vomiting, can occur in diabetic ketoacidosis but are not as early or specific as excessive thirst and fruity breath odor. Choice D, hypoglycemia and fatigue, are not typical signs of diabetic ketoacidosis; rather, diabetic ketoacidosis usually presents with hyperglycemia.

3. What are the differences between viral and bacterial infections?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Viral infections often cause fatigue and body aches, while bacterial infections are more likely to cause high fever and localized pain. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the symptoms commonly associated with viral infections. Bacterial infections, on the other hand, typically present with fever and localized pain, as stated in choice B. Choice C is incorrect as viral infections do not respond to antibiotics, while choice D is inaccurate because bacterial infections may require antibiotic treatment and are not always self-limiting.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer purified protein derivative (PPD) to a client who has suspected tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ensure the injection produces a wheal on the skin. A wheal indicates that the PPD has been administered correctly, allowing for the proper interpretation of results. Administering the injection in the client's thigh (choice B) is not the recommended site for PPD administration; it should be administered intradermally. Using an 18-gauge needle (choice C) is unnecessary and not the standard practice for PPD administration as a smaller gauge needle is preferred for intradermal injections. Massaging the site after injection (choice D) can lead to inaccurate results by dispersing the solution, so it is important to avoid touching the site after the injection to prevent altering the test results.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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