a nurse is collecting data from a client who is experiencing post traumatic stress disorder ptsd which of the following manifestations should the nurs
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1. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who is experiencing post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare professional expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypervigilance is a common manifestation of PTSD characterized by heightened alertness and fear of danger. This heightened state of awareness can lead to irritability, difficulty concentrating, and sleep disturbances. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity is not typically associated with PTSD; restlessness may be present but is not the primary manifestation, and avoidance of social situations is more commonly seen in conditions like social anxiety disorder rather than PTSD.

2. A nurse at a long-term care facility is caring for a client who requires oral suctioning. Which of the following supplies should the nurse plan to use for this task?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yankauer catheter. The Yankauer catheter is specifically designed for oral suctioning, making it the most appropriate choice for this task. Choice B, the Bulb syringe, is typically used for suctioning small amounts of liquid from the nose or mouth. Choice C, the Suction catheter, is more commonly used for deep suctioning in the trachea or bronchi. Choice D, Sterile gloves, are necessary for infection control but are not the primary supply used for oral suctioning.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.

4. A nurse is observing an assistive personnel (AP) apply antiembolic stockings for a client. Which of the following actions by the AP demonstrates an understanding of how to perform this skill?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Applying antiembolic stockings before the client gets out of bed is crucial as it helps prevent venous stasis and clot formation. Choice A is incorrect because stockings should be applied before the client gets out of bed. Choice C is incorrect as using lotion under the stocking can cause the stocking to slip. Choice D is incorrect because the stocking should be smooth and not bunched to prevent pressure points.

5. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with dehydration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to assess and manage a patient with dehydration is to assess skin turgor and monitor intake/output. Skin turgor assessment helps in evaluating the degree of dehydration, while monitoring intake/output aids in maintaining fluid balance. Encouraging oral fluids only (Choice B) may not be sufficient for moderate to severe dehydration as patients may need intravenous fluids (IV) to rapidly rehydrate. Administering IV fluids immediately (Choice C) is not always the first step unless the patient is severely dehydrated. Checking for electrolyte imbalance and administering fluids (Choice D) is important but comes after assessing skin turgor and intake/output in the management of dehydration.

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