Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is collecting data from an older adult client during a routine physical examination. Which of the following client statements should the nurse identify as a possible indication of maltreatment?

• A. My son took my wallet to keep track of my spending
• B. My son always cooks my meals for me
• C. My son doesn't want me to drive alone
• D. I exercise every day with my son

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking away a wallet to control spending is a form of financial maltreatment, which is a common form of abuse among older adults. Choices B, C, and D do not indicate maltreatment; rather, they show examples of care and concern from the son. Cooking meals, preventing the older adult from driving alone, and engaging in daily exercise are positive behaviors.

2. A client has a prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Place the tablet under the tongue and wait 10 minutes
• B. Take up to five tablets during an angina episode
• C. Take up to three tablets during a single angina episode
• D. Swallow the tablet with water

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take up to three tablets during a single angina episode.' Nitroglycerin can be taken up to three times during an episode to relieve angina. Choice A is incorrect because the client should place the tablet under the tongue and wait for it to dissolve, not wait for 10 minutes. Choice B is incorrect because taking up to five tablets during an angina episode is excessive and not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin tablets are meant to be taken sublingually, not swallowed.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

• A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
• C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
• D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?

• A. Decerebrate posturing.
• B. Hypervigilance.
• C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.

5. A client needs a 24-hour urine collection initiated. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the procedure?

• A. I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.
• B. I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.
• C. I flushed what I urinated at 7 am and have saved the rest since.
• D. I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is correct because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the procedure, which involves discarding the first urine of the day at the specified time and then saving all subsequent urine for the next 24 hours. Choices A, B, and D do not reflect an understanding of the correct procedure. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements are not part of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice B is incorrect as it does not specify discarding the first urine. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions filling up the bottle quickly, which is not the correct way to collect a 24-hour urine sample.

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