ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with acute renal failure?
- A. Monitor urine output and administer diuretics
- B. Administer IV fluids and restrict potassium intake
- C. Monitor electrolyte levels and provide dietary education
- D. Administer potassium and restrict fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In acute renal failure, it is crucial to monitor urine output to assess kidney function and fluid balance. Administering diuretics helps manage fluid levels by promoting urine production. Choice B is incorrect because administering IV fluids can worsen fluid overload in renal failure patients, and restricting potassium intake is not typically the initial approach. Choice C is not the primary intervention but is important for long-term management. Choice D is incorrect as administering potassium can be dangerous in renal failure, and restricting fluids can lead to dehydration.
2. What is the priority in managing a client diagnosed with delirium?
- A. Administer anti-anxiety medication
- B. Identify any underlying causes of delirium
- C. Reduce environmental stimulation to calm the client
- D. Encourage deep breathing exercises
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority in managing a client diagnosed with delirium is to identify any underlying causes. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare providers can address the issue effectively and tailor the treatment plan accordingly. Administering anti-anxiety medication (Choice A) may help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying cause of delirium. Similarly, reducing environmental stimulation (Choice C) and encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice D) may provide some relief, but they do not target the primary concern of identifying and addressing the underlying causes of delirium.
3. Which of the following is an early sign that suctioning is required for a client with a tracheostomy?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Irritability
- C. Confusion
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is necessary to clear the airway in a client with a tracheostomy. When secretions build up in the tracheostomy tube, the client may become irritable due to the discomfort and the compromised airway. Bradycardia, confusion, and hypotension are not typically early signs that suctioning is required. Bradycardia may occur if the airway becomes severely compromised, confusion may be a late sign of hypoxia, and hypotension is not directly related to the need for suctioning in a client with a tracheostomy.
4. What are the common causes of postoperative pain and how should it be managed?
- A. Surgical incision and muscle tension
- B. Nerve damage and wound complications
- C. Hypotension and respiratory issues
- D. Infection at the incision site
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Postoperative pain is commonly caused by the surgical incision and muscle tension. The correct answer is A. Surgical incisions cause tissue damage, triggering pain responses. Muscle tension can result from factors like positioning during surgery or guarding due to pain. Managing postoperative pain caused by surgical incisions and muscle tension involves the use of analgesics to alleviate discomfort. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Nerve damage and wound complications may also cause pain but are not as common as surgical incisions and muscle tension. Hypotension and respiratory issues are not direct causes of postoperative pain. Infection at the incision site can lead to pain, but it is a specific complication rather than a common cause of postoperative pain.
5. A client with dementia is at risk of falls. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure safety?
- A. Use restraints to prevent the client from leaving the bed
- B. Use a bed exit alarm to notify staff when the client tries to leave the bed
- C. Encourage frequent ambulation with assistance
- D. Raise all four side rails to prevent falls
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dementia at risk of falls is to use a bed exit alarm to notify staff when the client tries to leave the bed. This intervention helps prevent falls while still allowing some freedom of movement. Choice A is incorrect because using restraints can lead to complications and is considered a form of restraint which should be avoided. Choice C is not suitable for a client at high risk of falls due to dementia as it may increase the risk of falls. Choice D is not recommended as raising all four side rails can be considered a form of physical restraint and may not be the best approach to prevent falls in a client with dementia.
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