a home health nurse is preparing for an initial visit with an older adult client who lives alone which of the following actions should the nurse take
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1. A home health nurse is preparing for an initial visit with an older adult client who lives alone. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Identifying environmental hazards in the client's home is the priority during the initial visit with an older adult living alone. This action is crucial to prevent accidents, falls, and ensure the client's safety. While educating the client about their medical diagnosis, referring them to a meal delivery program, and arranging transportation for follow-up appointments are essential, addressing environmental hazards takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's immediate safety and well-being.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering 4 oz of orange juice is the appropriate action for a client experiencing hypoglycemia due to diabetes mellitus. Orange juice contains simple sugars that can quickly raise blood glucose levels. Insulin (Choice A) would further lower blood sugar, worsening the condition. Glucagon (Choice B) is used in severe hypoglycemia when the client cannot take anything by mouth. Administering 1 L of water (Choice D) is not indicated in hypoglycemia treatment; the priority is to raise blood sugar levels. Therefore, the correct choice is to administer orange juice to address the low blood sugar in this situation.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to start taking digoxin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client should contact their provider if their heart rate drops below 60 beats per minute, as this could indicate digoxin toxicity.

4. What is the correct way to assess for pitting edema?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to assess for pitting edema is to press over a bony area, typically the tibia, for 5 seconds and then release. This allows for the identification of pitting edema, characterized by an indentation that persists for a few seconds. Choice B is incorrect as pitting edema assessment does not involve checking for discoloration. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of a rash is not indicative of pitting edema. Choice D is incorrect as rebound tenderness is a different assessment used for abdominal conditions, not for pitting edema.

5. A nurse is administering lorazepam to a client who is scheduled for surgery within 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take after administering the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client not to get out of bed. Lorazepam is a sedative that can cause drowsiness and impair coordination. By instructing the client not to get out of bed, the nurse helps prevent falls or injuries that could occur due to the medication's sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect as keeping the client awake may not be necessary and could lead to unnecessary discomfort. Choice C is incorrect as encouraging the client to drink fluids is not directly related to the administration of lorazepam. Choice D is incorrect as early ambulation is not safe immediately after administering a sedative medication.

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