ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. What are the key interventions for managing a patient with asthma?
- A. Administer bronchodilators and monitor oxygen levels
- B. Encourage deep breathing exercises
- C. Provide corticosteroids and monitor for respiratory distress
- D. Provide antihistamines and monitor blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer bronchodilators and monitor oxygen levels. Asthma management involves using bronchodilators to help open the airways and improve breathing. Monitoring oxygen levels is essential to ensure the patient is getting enough oxygen. Choice B, encouraging deep breathing exercises, can be helpful for some respiratory conditions but is not a key intervention for managing an acute asthma attack. Choice C, providing corticosteroids and monitoring for respiratory distress, is important for long-term asthma management and severe exacerbations but is not the immediate key intervention during an acute attack. Choice D, providing antihistamines and monitoring blood pressure, is not typically indicated for asthma management as asthma is primarily an airway disease, not a histamine-mediated condition.
2. What is an essential nursing intervention for a client experiencing delirium?
- A. Control behavioral symptoms with low-dose psychotropics
- B. Identify the underlying causative condition
- C. Increase environmental stimulation
- D. Administer antipsychotic medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B - 'Identify the underlying causative condition.' When a client is experiencing delirium, it is crucial to determine the root cause of this acute change in mental status. This can involve a thorough assessment to identify any medical conditions, medications, infections, or environmental factors that may be contributing to the delirium. By pinpointing the underlying cause, appropriate interventions can be implemented to address the specific issue. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because controlling behavioral symptoms with low-dose psychotropics, increasing environmental stimulation, and administering antipsychotic medication do not target the primary need of identifying and addressing the causative condition of delirium.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Constipation
- B. Absent deep-tendon reflexes
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Tingling of the extremities
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct! A calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL indicates hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can lead to increased neuromuscular excitability, manifesting as tingling of the extremities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other electrolyte imbalances or conditions and are not typically related to hypocalcemia. Constipation is commonly seen in hypokalemia, absent deep-tendon reflexes are associated with hypermagnesemia, and nausea and vomiting are more indicative of hypercalcemia.
4. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?
- A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
- B. Braden scale score of 20
- C. Norton scale score of 18
- D. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.
5. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Elevated blood pressure.
- B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
- C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.
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