Nursing Elites

1. What are the signs of opioid withdrawal, and how should it be managed?

• A. Sweating, nausea; administer methadone
• B. Muscle cramps, vomiting; administer naloxone
• C. Tremors, sweating; administer buprenorphine
• D. Fever, agitation; provide sedatives

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs of opioid withdrawal typically include sweating and nausea. The correct management approach involves administering methadone to alleviate the symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not for managing withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as buprenorphine is typically used to treat opioid addiction, not just withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as sedatives are not the primary treatment for opioid withdrawal.

2. A nurse is educating a client on how to use a cane due to left-leg weakness. What should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Use the cane on the stronger side
• B. Advance the cane and the weaker leg at the same time
• C. Use the cane on the weaker side
• D. Advance the cane 30 to 45 cm (12-18 in) with each step

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to use the cane on the stronger side. By doing so, the client will have better support and balance. Choice B is incorrect because advancing the cane and the weaker leg at the same time may lead to instability and falls. Choice C is incorrect as using the cane on the weaker side does not provide optimal support. Choice D is incorrect as advancing the cane 30 to 45 cm (12-18 in) with each step is not a standard recommendation for cane use.

3. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hr postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hr following surgery.
• B. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hr.
• C. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hr.
• D. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours is crucial to ensure adequate pain control in the immediate postoperative period. Choice A is incorrect because clear liquids are typically initiated gradually and advanced as tolerated but not specifically at 6 hours post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect as cromolyn nebulizer solution is not indicated for postoperative pain management in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as applying a warm compress may not be appropriate for the operative site after appendicitis surgery and can potentially increase the risk of infection.

4. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Elevated blood pressure.
• B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
• C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to start taking digoxin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication with food.
• B. I will contact my provider if my heart rate is below 60 beats per minute.
• C. I should take an antacid with this medication to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
• D. I will need to take this medication for 14 days.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client should contact their provider if their heart rate drops below 60 beats per minute, as this could indicate digoxin toxicity.

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