Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with fluid overload?

• A. Restrict fluids and administer diuretics
• B. Increase fluid intake and provide oral diuretics
• C. Administer antibiotics and monitor weight
• D. Monitor weight and provide a low-sodium diet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: When managing a patient with fluid overload, the appropriate approach involves restricting fluids and administering diuretics. This strategy helps remove excess fluid from the body and prevent complications associated with fluid overload. Choice B suggesting increasing fluid intake is incorrect as it would worsen the condition. Choice C, administering antibiotics, is unrelated to managing fluid overload. Choice D, monitoring weight and providing a low-sodium diet, is helpful but not as effective as fluid restriction and diuretics in managing fluid overload.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to minimize the risk of injury for this client?

• A. Use a bed exit alarm system
• B. Raise all four side rails while the client is in bed
• C. Apply one soft wrist restraint
• D. Dim the lights in the client's room

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a bed exit alarm system is crucial in minimizing the risk of injury for a client with dementia. This intervention helps alert staff when the client is attempting to leave the bed, reducing the chances of falls. Raising all four side rails while the client is in bed (Choice B) can lead to restraint-related issues and is not recommended unless necessary for safety reasons. Applying a soft wrist restraint (Choice C) is generally not the first choice in managing clients with dementia due to the risk of complications and loss of mobility. Dimming the lights in the client's room (Choice D) may not directly address the risk of injury associated with dementia and may even increase the risk of falls due to poor visibility.

3. A client receiving IV fluids has developed phlebitis. What action should the nurse take next after removing the IV catheter?

• A. Place a warm compress over the IV site
• B. Record the findings in the client's chart
• C. Notify the client's primary care provider
• D. Insert a new IV catheter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After removing an IV catheter due to phlebitis, the next step is to apply a warm compress over the IV site. This helps reduce inflammation and discomfort for the client. Recording the findings in the client's chart is important for documentation purposes but not the immediate next step. Notifying the client's primary care provider may be necessary depending on the severity of the phlebitis, but it is not the initial action. Inserting a new IV catheter is not appropriate until the phlebitis has resolved.

4. What are the key components of a focused respiratory assessment, and how do you recognize signs of respiratory distress?

• A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
• B. Palpation, Inspection, Observation, Auscultation
• C. Percussion, Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation
• D. Inspection, Percussion, Auscultation, Palpation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation. A focused respiratory assessment should start with inspection (observing the breathing pattern), followed by palpation (feeling for abnormalities like crepitus), percussion (evaluating for dullness or hyperresonance), and auscultation (listening to lung sounds). This systematic approach helps to identify signs of respiratory distress, such as abnormal breath sounds, increased respiratory rate, use of accessory muscles, and cyanosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the standard order and sequence of a focused respiratory assessment.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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