ATI LPN
PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor
1. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with fluid overload?
- A. Restrict fluids and administer diuretics
- B. Increase fluid intake and provide oral diuretics
- C. Administer antibiotics and monitor weight
- D. Monitor weight and provide a low-sodium diet
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: When managing a patient with fluid overload, the appropriate approach involves restricting fluids and administering diuretics. This strategy helps remove excess fluid from the body and prevent complications associated with fluid overload. Choice B suggesting increasing fluid intake is incorrect as it would worsen the condition. Choice C, administering antibiotics, is unrelated to managing fluid overload. Choice D, monitoring weight and providing a low-sodium diet, is helpful but not as effective as fluid restriction and diuretics in managing fluid overload.
2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?
- A. A Braden scale score of 20
- B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
- C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
- D. A Norton scale score of 18
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.
3. What are the signs of hypoglycemia, and how should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing this condition?
- A. Shakiness or Tremors
- B. Confusion or Irritability
- C. Hunger
- D. Dizziness or Lightheadedness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The signs of hypoglycemia include shakiness, confusion, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness. However, the classic and most common early sign is shakiness or tremors. When a patient is experiencing hypoglycemia, a healthcare provider should respond promptly by administering glucose to raise the blood sugar levels. Choice A is correct as it directly addresses one of the primary signs of hypoglycemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while confusion, irritability, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness can also be signs of hypoglycemia, shakiness or tremors are the classic and most common early symptoms that healthcare providers should be particularly vigilant for.
4. A client is reinforcing teaching with a nurse about how to use an incentive spirometer. Which of the following actions by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. The client exhales deeply before inhaling
- B. The client attempts to elevate the cylinder by inhaling deeply
- C. The client inhales quickly through the spirometer
- D. The client inhales several short breaths
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because inhaling deeply and slowly elevates the cylinder on the spirometer, promoting lung expansion. Choice A is incorrect as exhaling deeply before inhaling is not the correct technique for using an incentive spirometer. Choice C is incorrect as inhaling quickly through the spirometer does not promote optimal lung expansion. Choice D is incorrect as inhaling several short breaths does not facilitate the proper use of an incentive spirometer.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?
- A. Haloperidol
- B. Zolpidem
- C. Morphine
- D. Lorazepam
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.
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