Nursing Elites

1. A client is to start taking furosemide and is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend to the client?

• A. Cabbage
• B. Bananas
• C. Carrots
• D. Potatoes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which helps counter the potassium-depleting effects of furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so including potassium-rich foods like bananas in the diet can help maintain a healthy potassium level. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically address the potassium needs associated with furosemide therapy and are not the most appropriate recommendations in this context.

2. What is the first intervention for a patient in shock?

• A. Administer fluids
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Provide oxygen
• D. Call for assistance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer fluids. In a patient experiencing shock, the priority is to address inadequate perfusion by restoring circulating blood volume. Administering fluids helps improve perfusion and oxygen delivery to vital organs. Monitoring blood pressure, providing oxygen, and calling for assistance are important steps but administering fluids is the initial and most critical intervention in the management of shock.

3. A patient took an overdose of acetaminophen. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer to the patient?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Acetylcysteine
• C. Flumazenil
• D. Activated charcoal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It works by replenishing glutathione, a key component in detoxifying acetaminophen metabolites, thus preventing liver damage. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not acetaminophen. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antidote. Activated charcoal is used to limit absorption in cases of poisoning, but it is not the antidote for acetaminophen overdose.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

5. Which of the following is a key consideration when providing wound care for a client with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Cover the wound with a dry, sterile dressing
• B. Perform a wound culture before applying ointment
• C. Cleanse the wound with alcohol
• D. Cover the wound with a wet-to-dry dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a wound culture before applying ointment is crucial when providing wound care for a client with a pressure ulcer. This step helps identify the presence of any infection, allowing for appropriate treatment. Choice A is incorrect because covering the wound with a dry, sterile dressing may not address potential infections. Choice C is incorrect as cleansing the wound with alcohol can be too harsh and drying to the surrounding skin. Choice D is incorrect because covering the wound with a wet-to-dry dressing is not typically recommended for pressure ulcers, as it can cause trauma to the wound bed during removal.

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