ATI LPN
PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor
1. What intervention is essential for a client with dehydration?
- A. Monitor electrolyte levels regularly
- B. Administer oral rehydration solutions
- C. Increase fluid intake to maintain hydration
- D. Administer intravenous fluids to treat dehydration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering oral rehydration solutions is essential for a client with dehydration as it helps replenish lost fluids and electrolytes directly through the oral route. Monitoring electrolyte levels regularly (Choice A) is important but not as essential as providing immediate rehydration. Increasing fluid intake to maintain hydration (Choice C) may not be sufficient for a client already dehydrated and needing rapid replenishment. Administering intravenous fluids (Choice D) is a more invasive intervention typically reserved for severe cases of dehydration or when the client cannot tolerate oral fluids.
2. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Monitor daily fluid intake
- B. Monitor blood glucose levels
- C. Measure intake and output
- D. Administer insulin as prescribed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor blood glucose levels.' When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which has a high glucose content, it is crucial to monitor blood glucose levels closely to prevent hyperglycemia. Monitoring daily fluid intake (Choice A) is important in other contexts but is not directly related to TPN administration. Measuring intake and output (Choice C) is a general nursing intervention that is relevant for assessing fluid balance but is not specific to TPN administration. Administering insulin as prescribed (Choice D) may be necessary for clients with hyperglycemia, but this intervention is based on the blood glucose monitoring results and the healthcare provider's orders, not a standard intervention for all clients receiving TPN.
3. What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?
- A. Immobility and poor nutrition
- B. Increased mobility and proper hygiene
- C. Excess moisture and lack of movement
- D. Frequent turning and repositioning
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication has been effective?
- A. Cardiac workload decreases
- B. Blood pressure increases
- C. Respiratory rate increases
- D. Temperature decreases
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac workload decreases. Digoxin helps reduce cardiac workload in clients with heart failure, improving symptoms. This reduction in workload indicates that the medication is effective. Choice B, blood pressure increases, is incorrect because digoxin typically does not directly affect blood pressure. Choice C, respiratory rate increases, is incorrect as an increased respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of digoxin effectiveness. Choice D, temperature decreases, is also incorrect as digoxin does not typically affect body temperature.
5. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with potential pneumonia?
- A. Assess lung sounds and monitor oxygen saturation
- B. Monitor for fever and sputum production
- C. Auscultate heart sounds and check for cyanosis
- D. Monitor for chest pain and administer oxygen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access