a nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury the nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.

2. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What should the nurse do immediately?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the immediate action the nurse should take is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications such as infection, thrombosis, or sepsis. Removing the IV line helps prevent further irritation and infection. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) may provide some relief but does not address the root cause. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice C) is important but not the immediate action needed to address phlebitis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice D) may be prescribed by the provider but is not the first step in managing phlebitis.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyponatremia. In SIADH, there is excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, causing water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Polyuria (choice A) is increased urination, which is not a typical finding in SIADH. Dehydration (choice B) is the loss of body fluids, which is opposite to the fluid retention seen in SIADH. Hyperglycemia (choice D) is elevated blood sugar levels and is not directly related to SIADH.

4. What are the signs of hypoglycemia, and how should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing this condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs of hypoglycemia include shakiness, confusion, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness. However, the classic and most common early sign is shakiness or tremors. When a patient is experiencing hypoglycemia, a healthcare provider should respond promptly by administering glucose to raise the blood sugar levels. Choice A is correct as it directly addresses one of the primary signs of hypoglycemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while confusion, irritability, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness can also be signs of hypoglycemia, shakiness or tremors are the classic and most common early symptoms that healthcare providers should be particularly vigilant for.

5. A client is expressing concern about extreme fatigue following an acute myocardial infarction. What is the best strategy to promote independence?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods is the best strategy to promote independence. This approach helps the client regain confidence and autonomy in performing self-care activities. Instructing the client to rest until fully recovered (Choice A) may lead to decreased muscle strength and independence. Assigning assistive personnel (Choice C) does not empower the client to actively participate in their care. Involving the client's family (Choice D) may provide support but does not directly encourage the client's independence.

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