ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?
- A. Decerebrate posturing.
- B. Hypervigilance.
- C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.
2. A nurse is teaching a client who has Parkinson's disease about dietary modifications. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Eat high-protein, high-calorie meals
- B. Drink milk with every meal
- C. Avoid foods high in carbohydrates
- D. Drink carbonated beverages with meals
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Eat high-protein, high-calorie meals.' Individuals with Parkinson's disease benefit from consuming high-protein, high-calorie meals to help maintain muscle mass and energy levels. This dietary modification is important in managing the symptoms of Parkinson's disease. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific requirement for drinking milk with every meal for individuals with Parkinson's disease. Choice C is incorrect as carbohydrates are also essential for a balanced diet and should not be completely avoided. Choice D is incorrect as carbonated beverages may interfere with the absorption of nutrients from food and are not recommended for individuals with Parkinson's disease.
3. What is the best approach to assist a client in performing self-care after an acute myocardial infarction, when the client expresses concern about fatigue?
- A. Provide clear instructions on how to ask for assistance
- B. Gradually resume self-care tasks, focusing on rest periods
- C. Encourage assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks
- D. Encourage the client to remain in bed until fully rested
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best approach to assist a client in performing self-care after an acute myocardial infarction, especially when the client expresses concern about fatigue, is to gradually resume self-care tasks while focusing on rest periods. This approach allows the client to build confidence in managing their self-care activities while also addressing the issue of fatigue. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on asking for assistance rather than promoting self-care. Choice C is inappropriate as it suggests delegating the client's self-care tasks to assistive personnel instead of empowering the client. Choice D is incorrect as it can lead to deconditioning and is not conducive to the client's recovery process.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing chronic pain. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Provide the client with distractions such as television
- B. Administer pain medication around the clock
- C. Teach the client relaxation techniques
- D. Perform massage therapy on the client
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client experiencing chronic pain is to teach relaxation techniques, as it helps in managing pain more effectively by reducing stress and anxiety. Distractions like television (Choice A) may offer temporary relief but do not address the root cause of chronic pain. Administering pain medication around the clock (Choice B) may lead to dependency and not promote long-term pain management. While massage therapy (Choice D) can be beneficial, teaching relaxation techniques (Choice C) is more directly focused on empowering the client to manage their pain independently.
5. A client needs a 24-hour urine collection initiated. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the procedure?
- A. I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.
- B. I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.
- C. I flushed what I urinated at 7 am and have saved the rest since.
- D. I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is correct because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the procedure, which involves discarding the first urine of the day at the specified time and then saving all subsequent urine for the next 24 hours. Choices A, B, and D do not reflect an understanding of the correct procedure. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements are not part of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice B is incorrect as it does not specify discarding the first urine. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions filling up the bottle quickly, which is not the correct way to collect a 24-hour urine sample.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access