ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020
1. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who is NPO and is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider?
- A. Metoprolol ER 50 mg via NG tube BID
- B. Acetaminophen 650 mg PO BID
- C. Lisinopril 10 mg PO daily
- D. Ondansetron 4 mg IV push PRN
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should clarify prescription B, Acetaminophen 650 mg PO BID, with the provider. When a patient is NPO and receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube, medications administered orally may be contraindicated due to the risk of aspiration. Therefore, Acetaminophen should be confirmed for safety in this situation. The other options (Metoprolol ER 50 mg via NG tube BID, Lisinopril 10 mg PO daily, Ondansetron 4 mg IV push PRN) are appropriate and do not need clarification in this scenario.
2. Which of the following is an expected side effect of furosemide?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Increased blood pressure
- D. Increased urine output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Choice A, Bradycardia, is incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Choice C, Increased blood pressure, is incorrect as furosemide is actually used to lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume. Choice D, Increased urine output, is a common effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not an adverse side effect.
3. A nurse is collecting data from a client who delivered a full-term newborn 16 hours ago. The nurse notes excessive lochia discharge. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer pain medication
- B. Perform a fundal massage for the client
- C. Check the baby's heart rate
- D. Apply an ice pack
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first when noting excessive lochia discharge in a client who delivered a full-term newborn 16 hours ago is to perform a fundal massage. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which in turn reduces bleeding in postpartum clients. Administering pain medication (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as addressing the excessive lochia discharge is crucial to prevent complications. Checking the baby's heart rate (Choice C) is important but not the first action to manage the mother's condition. Applying an ice pack (Choice D) is not appropriate for managing excessive lochia discharge; fundal massage is the initial intervention to address this issue effectively.
4. What is the priority nursing action for a client with dehydration?
- A. Administer oral fluids
- B. Monitor electrolyte levels
- C. Administer antiemetics as needed
- D. Encourage bed rest
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority nursing action for a client with dehydration is to monitor electrolyte levels. Dehydration can cause imbalances in electrolytes such as sodium and potassium, affecting essential bodily functions. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial to promptly identify and correct any imbalances. While administering oral fluids (Choice A) is vital in treating dehydration, monitoring electrolyte levels takes precedence as it directly addresses the underlying imbalance. Administering antiemetics (Choice C) may be necessary for nausea and vomiting but is not the priority over electrolyte monitoring. Encouraging bed rest (Choice D) can conserve energy but is not as critical as monitoring electrolyte levels to prevent complications related to electrolyte imbalances.
5. A charge nurse in a long-term care facility notices an assistive personnel's (AP) repeated failure to provide oral care for clients. Which of the following actions should the charge nurse take?
- A. Ignore the behavior
- B. Reassign the AP
- C. Report the behavior to the manager
- D. Discuss this behavior with the AP while reinforcing expectations
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a charge nurse observes repeated failure in a staff member's performance, it is essential to address the issue directly. Choice D is the correct answer as it involves discussing the behavior with the assistive personnel (AP) while reinforcing expectations. This approach helps in clarifying the expected standards, setting accountability, and providing an opportunity for improvement. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Ignoring the behavior (Choice A) does not address the problem and can lead to continued substandard care. Reassigning the AP (Choice B) may not solve the issue and can potentially transfer the problem to another area. Reporting the behavior to the manager (Choice C) without directly addressing it with the AP first may not promote a constructive approach to resolving the issue.
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