Nursing Elites

1. What are the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure?

• A. Systolic: Reduced ejection fraction; Diastolic: Preserved ejection fraction
• B. Systolic: Preserved ejection fraction; Diastolic: Reduced ejection fraction
• C. Systolic: Right-sided heart failure; Diastolic: Left-sided heart failure
• D. Systolic: Pulmonary congestion; Diastolic: Systemic congestion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Systolic heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction, meaning the heart is not pumping effectively. Diastolic heart failure, on the other hand, is characterized by preserved ejection fraction, indicating that the heart has difficulty relaxing and filling properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure.

2. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with diarrhea?

• A. Provide oral fluids and monitor stool consistency
• B. Administer antidiarrheal medications and monitor hydration
• C. Monitor for electrolyte imbalances and provide antibiotics
• D. Provide a low-fiber diet and monitor weight

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a patient with diarrhea, the priority is to manage dehydration by providing oral fluids and monitoring stool consistency. Option B suggesting administering antidiarrheal medications is not recommended as it may prolong the infection by preventing the body from expelling the infectious agent. Option C is incorrect because antibiotics are not routinely indicated for diarrhea unless there is a specific bacterial infection. Option D is not the most appropriate initial intervention for managing diarrhea since a low-fiber diet may not provide adequate nutrition for the patient or help resolve the underlying cause of diarrhea.

3. A nurse is assisting with the admission of a client who has major depressive disorder. Which of the following communication techniques should the nurse use to establish a trusting relationship with the client?

• A. Offer medical advice
• B. Offer general leads
• C. Ask open-ended questions
• D. Use assertive communication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of establishing a trusting relationship with a client who has major depressive disorder, offering general leads is the most appropriate communication technique. General leads encourage clients to express themselves by providing subtle prompts or cues, which can help build rapport and trust. Offering medical advice (Choice A) is not suitable as it may come across as imposing and could hinder the establishment of trust. Asking open-ended questions (Choice C) is beneficial for eliciting detailed responses but may not be as effective at initially establishing trust as general leads. Using assertive communication (Choice D) can be perceived as aggressive and intimidating, which is not conducive to building a trusting relationship with a client who has major depressive disorder.

4. How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

• A. Administer insulin
• B. Administer IV fluids
• C. Monitor blood glucose
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), it is crucial to administer insulin to lower blood sugar levels, administer IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, and monitor blood glucose levels regularly to ensure they are within the target range. Therefore, all of the above options are essential components of the comprehensive treatment plan for DKA. Administering insulin alone may lower blood sugar levels but will not address the fluid and electrolyte imbalances seen in DKA. Similarly, administering IV fluids alone may help with dehydration but will not address the high blood sugar levels or the need for insulin. Monitoring blood glucose alone is not sufficient to treat DKA; it must be accompanied by appropriate interventions to address the underlying causes and complications of the condition.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

• A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
• C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
• D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.

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