Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is instructing a group of nursing students about the responsibilities involved with organ donation and procurement. When the nurse explains that all clients waiting for a kidney transplant have to meet the same qualifications, the students should understand that this aspect of care delivery is an example of which ethical principle?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Non-maleficence

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Justice. Justice in healthcare ethics refers to fairness and equality in the distribution of resources and treatments. In this scenario, ensuring that all clients waiting for a kidney transplant meet the same qualifications demonstrates the ethical principle of justice by providing equal opportunities for all candidates. Choice A, fidelity, pertains to keeping promises and being faithful to agreements, which is not the primary ethical principle at play in this situation. Autonomy, choice B, relates to respecting a patient's right to make their own decisions, which is not directly applicable in the context of organ transplant qualifications. Non-maleficence, choice D, refers to the principle of doing no harm, which is important but not the primary ethical principle highlighted in this scenario.

2. The nurse is caring for an 80-year-old client with Parkinson's disease. Which of the following nursing goals is MOST realistic and appropriate in planning care for this client?

• A. Facilitate the client in returning to usual activities of daily living
• B. Maintain optimal function within the client's limitations
• C. Assist the client in preparing for a peaceful and dignified death
• D. Delay the progression of the disease process in the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining optimal function within the client's limitations is the most realistic and appropriate nursing goal when caring for an 80-year-old client with Parkinson's disease. This goal focuses on maximizing the client's abilities and quality of life while acknowledging the impact of the disease. Option A is less realistic as returning to usual activities may not always be achievable in the case of Parkinson's disease. Option C is not appropriate as it does not address the client's current condition and care needs. Option D is less realistic as Parkinson's disease is progressive, and delaying its progression may not be entirely feasible.

3. What are the key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia?

• A. Hypoglycemia: Sweating, trembling; Hyperglycemia: Frequent urination, thirst
• B. Hypoglycemia: Increased thirst; Hyperglycemia: Sweating, confusion
• C. Hypoglycemia: Increased appetite; Hyperglycemia: Blurred vision
• D. Hypoglycemia: Dizziness; Hyperglycemia: Low blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypoglycemia typically presents with sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia is characterized by frequent urination and thirst. Therefore, the correct key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are that hypoglycemia includes symptoms like sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia involves symptoms such as frequent urination and thirst. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the characteristic symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, as stated in the question.

4. Which dietary restriction should be taught to a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods
• B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
• C. Encourage increased protein intake
• D. Increase fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit phosphorus and potassium intake. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter these minerals from the blood, leading to their accumulation and potential complications. Restricting phosphorus and potassium intake is crucial in managing the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can worsen the condition. Choice C is also incorrect as excessive protein intake can put more strain on the kidneys. Choice D is not the priority; rather, fluid intake should be monitored based on individual needs and stage of kidney disease.

5. What are the risk factors for pressure ulcer development?

• A. Immobility and poor nutrition
• B. Obesity and diabetes
• C. Dehydration and malnutrition
• D. Use of assistive devices and prolonged bedrest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is immobility and poor nutrition. Immobility can lead to constant pressure on certain areas of the body, while poor nutrition can impair tissue repair and regeneration, both contributing to the development of pressure ulcers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while obesity, diabetes, dehydration, malnutrition, use of assistive devices, and prolonged bedrest can impact skin integrity and wound healing, they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with pressure ulcer development.

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