Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery and has a new prescription for a regular diet. For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?

• A. Presence of bowel sounds
• B. Client reports nausea
• C. Client is vomiting
• D. Absent bowel sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Absent bowel sounds are concerning as they indicate potential complications such as ileus, which is a risk after abdominal surgery. The absence of bowel sounds can suggest decreased or absent intestinal motility, which may lead to complications if not addressed promptly. The nurse should notify the provider immediately to assess the situation and intervene accordingly. Choices A and B are common postoperative occurrences and do not necessarily warrant immediate provider notification. Choice C, vomiting, while concerning, may be a common postoperative symptom; however, absent bowel sounds are a more critical finding that requires prompt attention.

2. A nurse at a long-term care facility is part of a team preparing a report on the quality of care at the facility. Which of the following information should the nurse recommend including in the report to demonstrate improvement in care quality?

• A. Increased admissions
• B. 12% fewer urinary tract infections
• C. Increased mortality rate
• D. No changes in staffing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: '12% fewer urinary tract infections.' Tracking infections, such as UTIs, is crucial in assessing care quality improvements as the reduction in infections indicates better infection control practices and overall quality of care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased admissions (Choice A) do not directly reflect improvements in care quality. Increased mortality rate (Choice C) is a negative outcome and demonstrates a decline in care quality. No changes in staffing (Choice D) do not provide direct evidence of care quality improvements.

3. What is the most important nursing action when administering IV potassium?

• A. Monitor for decreased urine output
• B. Administer via IV push
• C. Administer slowly and dilute in IV fluids
• D. Ensure the client drinks 500 mL of water before administration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important nursing action when administering IV potassium is to administer it slowly and dilute it in IV fluids. This approach helps prevent irritation and hyperkalemia. Monitoring for decreased urine output (Choice A) is important but not as critical as ensuring the safe administration of IV potassium. Administering potassium via IV push (Choice B) is unsafe and can lead to adverse effects. Ensuring the client drinks water before administration (Choice D) is not directly related to the safe administration of IV potassium.

4. The nurse is making a home visit with a client diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. The client recently started on lorazepam (Ativan) due to increased anxiety. The nurse is cautioning the family about the use of lorazepam (Ativan). The nurse should instruct the family to report which of the following significant side effects to the healthcare provider?

• A. Paradoxical excitement
• B. Headache
• C. Slowing of reflexes
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, paradoxical excitement. Lorazepam can cause an unexpected response of paradoxical excitement, which should be reported to the healthcare provider. This reaction is characterized by increased anxiety, restlessness, and agitation instead of the expected calming effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because headache, slowing of reflexes, and fatigue are more common side effects of lorazepam and may not warrant immediate reporting unless severe or persistent.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. HbA1c level greater than 8%.
• B. Blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime.
• C. Blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast.
• D. HbA1c level less than 7%.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An HbA1c level less than 7% indicates good long-term glucose control for clients with diabetes. This goal reflects optimal glycemic control and reduces the risk of long-term complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent appropriate goals for managing type 1 diabetes in an adolescent. An HbA1c level greater than 8% (choice A) signifies poor glucose control, while a blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime (choice B) and a blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast (choice C) are not within the target ranges for safe and effective diabetes management.

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