Nursing Elites

1. What are the key differences between viral and bacterial infections?

• A. Viral infections typically last longer than bacterial infections.
• B. Bacterial infections typically cause high fever.
• C. Both bacterial and viral infections cause rashes.
• D. Viral infections cause sudden onset of symptoms.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Viral infections typically last longer than bacterial infections. This is because viral infections often require the body's immune system to fight off the virus, leading to a longer duration of illness. Bacterial infections, on the other hand, often cause a rapid onset of symptoms due to the toxins produced by bacteria. Choice B is incorrect because not all bacterial infections cause high fever. Choice C is incorrect because rashes can be caused by both bacterial and viral infections, but not always. Choice D is incorrect because while some viral infections may cause a sudden onset of symptoms, it is not a key distinguishing factor between viral and bacterial infections.

2. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with dehydration?

• A. Assess skin turgor and monitor intake/output
• B. Encourage oral fluids only
• C. Administer IV fluids immediately
• D. Check for electrolyte imbalance and administer fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to assess and manage a patient with dehydration is to assess skin turgor and monitor intake/output. Skin turgor assessment helps in evaluating the degree of dehydration, while monitoring intake/output aids in maintaining fluid balance. Encouraging oral fluids only (Choice B) may not be sufficient for moderate to severe dehydration as patients may need intravenous fluids (IV) to rapidly rehydrate. Administering IV fluids immediately (Choice C) is not always the first step unless the patient is severely dehydrated. Checking for electrolyte imbalance and administering fluids (Choice D) is important but comes after assessing skin turgor and intake/output in the management of dehydration.

3. What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?

• A. Immobility and poor nutrition
• B. Increased mobility and proper hygiene
• C. Excess moisture and lack of movement
• D. Frequent turning and repositioning

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.

4. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a newly applied cast to the right lower extremity. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Capillary refill of 1 second
• B. Capillary refill of 5 seconds
• C. Pitting edema
• D. Shortness of breath

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with a newly applied cast, the nurse should expect a capillary refill of approximately 2 seconds, as this indicates adequate circulation. A capillary refill longer than 3 seconds suggests impaired circulation, which is abnormal. Therefore, a capillary refill of 5 seconds is the finding the nurse should expect. Pitting edema and shortness of breath are not typically directly related to a newly applied cast and should not be expected findings in this scenario.

5. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has myasthenia gravis (MG). Which of the following images should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is experiencing ptosis?

• A. Drooping eyelids
• B. Unequal pupils
• C. Facial twitching
• D. Facial droop

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Drooping eyelids.' Ptosis, characterized by drooping of the eyelid, is a classic symptom seen in myasthenia gravis. This occurs due to muscle weakness, particularly in the muscles that control eyelid movement. Choice B, 'Unequal pupils,' is not associated with ptosis and may indicate other neurological issues. Choice C, 'Facial twitching,' is not a typical sign of ptosis but could be related to other conditions like nerve irritation. Choice D, 'Facial droop,' is more commonly seen in conditions affecting the facial nerve, like Bell's palsy, and is not a characteristic feature of myasthenia gravis.

Similar Questions