what are the key components of a neurological assessment
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. What are the key components of a neurological assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A neurological assessment includes evaluating the level of consciousness and motor function as they are key components in assessing neurological function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as headache, nausea, reflexes, pupil size, tremors, and confusion may be part of a neurological assessment but are not the key components that are fundamental for a comprehensive assessment.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in clients receiving TPN because the solution has a high glucose content. This monitoring helps prevent hyperglycemia and allows for timely adjustments in the TPN formulation if needed. Monitoring the client's temperature (Choice A) is not directly related to TPN administration. Administering insulin (Choice C) should be based on blood glucose levels and the healthcare provider's orders; it is not a standard intervention for all clients on TPN. Monitoring daily fluid intake (Choice D) is important for overall fluid balance but is not as critical as monitoring blood glucose levels specifically for clients on TPN.

3. A client has a history of oliguria, hypertension, and peripheral edema. Current lab values are: BUN - 25, K+ - 4.0 mEq/L. Which nutrient should be restricted in the client's diet?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with oliguria, hypertension, and peripheral edema, protein should be restricted in the diet to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Excessive protein intake can lead to increased BUN levels, which can further stress the kidneys. Restricting protein can help prevent further kidney damage. Fats, carbohydrates, and magnesium do not directly impact kidney function in the same way as protein does, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

4. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

5. While caring for a client with an IV infusion who develops redness and warmth at the IV site, what is the most appropriate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention when a client develops redness and warmth at the IV site, indicating phlebitis, is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. This is crucial to prevent further complications. Elevating the IV site and applying an ice pack (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of phlebitis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice B) is not the primary intervention for phlebitis. Applying a cold compress (Choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to discontinue the IV when phlebitis occurs.

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