Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

2. What are the nursing interventions for a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy?

• A. Monitor INR levels and check for bleeding
• B. Administer antiplatelet therapy
• C. Check for signs of DVT and provide anticoagulation
• D. Administer aspirin and monitor for bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy is to monitor INR levels and check for signs of bleeding. Monitoring the INR levels helps assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulant therapy, while checking for bleeding is essential due to the increased risk associated with anticoagulants. Choice B is incorrect as antiplatelet therapy is not the standard treatment for patients on anticoagulant therapy. Choice C is incorrect as providing additional anticoagulation is not a direct nursing intervention in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect because administering aspirin, an antiplatelet medication, along with anticoagulants can increase the risk of bleeding and is generally avoided.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about breathing exercises. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use abdominal breathing during physical activity
• B. Inhale quickly and deeply through the nose
• C. Use pursed-lip breathing during physical activity
• D. Breathe quickly and deeply during exercise

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use pursed-lip breathing during physical activity.' Pursed-lip breathing is a beneficial technique for clients with COPD as it helps improve airflow by keeping the airways open longer. Choice A is incorrect as abdominal breathing may not be as effective in COPD as pursed-lip breathing. Choice B, inhaling quickly and deeply through the nose, is not recommended as it can lead to hyperventilation. Choice D, breathing quickly and deeply during exercise, is also not suitable for clients with COPD as it can cause increased shortness of breath.

4. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Elevated blood pressure.
• B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
• C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.

5. Which nursing action is a priority when managing a client with a wound infection?

• A. Change the wound dressing every 24 hours
• B. Perform a wound culture before administering antibiotics
• C. Cleanse the wound with alcohol-based solutions
• D. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing to the wound

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a wound culture before administering antibiotics is crucial when managing a client with a wound infection. This step helps identify the specific pathogens causing the infection, allowing for the prescription of the most effective antibiotics. Changing the wound dressing every 24 hours (Choice A) is important for wound care but not the priority when an infection is present. Cleansing the wound with alcohol-based solutions (Choice C) can be too harsh and may delay wound healing. Applying a wet-to-dry dressing (Choice D) is not recommended for infected wounds as it can cause trauma to the wound bed during dressing changes.

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