a nurse is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the clients medical history which of the following findings is expected
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1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

2. What is the best nursing intervention for a patient with hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer potassium-wasting diuretics. Hyperkalemia, which is high potassium levels, is managed by promoting the excretion of potassium from the body. Potassium-wasting diuretics help the kidneys eliminate excess potassium. Encouraging a low-potassium diet (choice B) is important for long-term management but not the immediate intervention for hyperkalemia. Administering potassium supplements (choice C) would worsen the condition by further increasing potassium levels. Administering IV fluids (choice D) may help with hydration but does not directly address the high potassium levels characteristic of hyperkalemia.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypervigilance. Individuals with PTSD often experience hypervigilance, which involves being overly alert, easily startled, and constantly scanning their environment for potential threats. This heightened state of awareness is a common response to the trauma experienced. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity is not typically a primary manifestation of PTSD; restlessness may occur but is not as characteristic as hypervigilance, and although avoidance of social situations can be a symptom of PTSD, hypervigilance is more directly associated with the disorder.

4. What are the key components of a focused respiratory assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation. A focused respiratory assessment involves inspecting the chest for any abnormalities, palpating to assess tenderness and chest expansion, percussion to evaluate underlying structures, and auscultation to listen to lung sounds. Choice B is incorrect because observation is generally part of inspection, not a separate component. Choice C is incorrect as auscultation should come before percussion in a respiratory assessment. Choice D is incorrect because inspection should precede palpation in a structured assessment.

5. The physician orders risperidone (Risperdal) for a client with Alzheimer's disease. The nurse anticipates administering this medication to help decrease which of the following behaviors?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Agitation and assaultiveness. Risperidone is commonly prescribed for clients with Alzheimer's disease to reduce symptoms of agitation and aggressive behavior. This medication helps in managing challenging behaviors often seen in individuals with Alzheimer's. Choice A, sleep disturbances, is incorrect as risperidone is not primarily indicated for treating sleep issues in Alzheimer's patients. Choice B, concomitant depression, is also incorrect as risperidone is not the first-line treatment for depression in Alzheimer's disease. Choice D, confusion and withdrawal, is incorrect as risperidone does not directly target these symptoms in Alzheimer's patients.

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