Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

2. What are the major risk factors for stroke?

• A. Hypertension, high cholesterol, and smoking
• B. Obesity and lack of exercise
• C. Family history of cardiovascular disease
• D. Age and gender

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension, high cholesterol, and smoking are major risk factors for stroke. These factors contribute to the development of atherosclerosis, which can lead to a stroke. While obesity and lack of exercise are risk factors for cardiovascular diseases, they are not as directly linked to stroke as hypertension, high cholesterol, and smoking. Family history of cardiovascular disease may increase the overall risk of heart problems, but it is not as specific to stroke as the factors listed in option A. Age and gender can influence the risk of stroke, but they are not modifiable risk factors like hypertension, high cholesterol, and smoking, which can be reduced through lifestyle changes.

3. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is in labor and has spontaneous rupture of membranes following a vaginal examination. The provider reports the client's cervix is dilated to 1 cm with an unengaged presenting part. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to bear down
• B. Apply the external fetal monitor
• C. Provide the client with fluids
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, with the client's cervix dilated to only 1 cm and an unengaged presenting part, the priority action is to apply the external fetal monitor. This allows for continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate during early labor, which is crucial for assessing fetal well-being. Encouraging the client to bear down is not appropriate at 1 cm dilation, as it may not be effective and can lead to exhaustion. Providing the client with fluids or administering IV fluids may be necessary for hydration, but the immediate concern is monitoring fetal well-being.

4. What are the common causes of postoperative pain and how should it be managed?

• A. Surgical incision and muscle tension
• B. Nerve damage and wound complications
• C. Hypotension and respiratory issues
• D. Infection at the incision site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Postoperative pain is commonly caused by the surgical incision and muscle tension. The correct answer is A. Surgical incisions cause tissue damage, triggering pain responses. Muscle tension can result from factors like positioning during surgery or guarding due to pain. Managing postoperative pain caused by surgical incisions and muscle tension involves the use of analgesics to alleviate discomfort. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Nerve damage and wound complications may also cause pain but are not as common as surgical incisions and muscle tension. Hypotension and respiratory issues are not direct causes of postoperative pain. Infection at the incision site can lead to pain, but it is a specific complication rather than a common cause of postoperative pain.

5. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with hyperkalemia?

• A. Monitor ECG and administer insulin
• B. Monitor blood glucose levels and provide fluids
• C. Monitor for muscle weakness and administer calcium gluconate
• D. Monitor electrolyte levels and provide potassium supplements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: When assessing a patient with hyperkalemia, monitoring the ECG and administering insulin are crucial steps. Hyperkalemia can affect the heart's function, leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the ECG helps in identifying any cardiac abnormalities associated with high potassium levels. Administering insulin, along with glucose, helps shift potassium from the bloodstream into the cells, temporarily lowering the potassium levels. Choice B is incorrect because monitoring blood glucose levels and providing fluids are not the primary interventions for hyperkalemia. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring for muscle weakness and administering calcium gluconate are not the first-line treatments for hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate may be used in specific situations to stabilize cardiac cell membranes in severe cases of hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring electrolyte levels and providing potassium supplements would worsen hyperkalemia, as the patient already has elevated potassium levels and does not require additional potassium supplementation.

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