Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

2. What are key signs of fluid overload?

• A. Edema
• B. Hypertension
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: All of the above.' Edema, hypertension, and shortness of breath are key signs of fluid overload, particularly common in patients with heart failure. Edema refers to the swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in the body's tissues, hypertension can be a result of fluid volume overload, and shortness of breath can occur due to fluid accumulation in the lungs. Therefore, all these signs collectively indicate fluid overload in a patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as each alone may not necessarily indicate fluid overload, but when seen together, they strongly suggest fluid volume excess in the body.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the TPN through a peripheral IV catheter.
• B. Check the client's capillary blood glucose level every 4 hours.
• C. Heat the TPN solution to room temperature before administering.
• D. Weigh the client every 3 days.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's capillary blood glucose level every 4 hours. Clients receiving TPN are at risk for hyperglycemia, so regular monitoring of blood glucose levels is essential to detect and manage hyperglycemia promptly. Administering TPN through a peripheral IV catheter (Choice A) is incorrect as TPN should be given through a central venous catheter to prevent complications. Heating the TPN solution to room temperature (Choice C) is unnecessary and not a standard practice. Weighing the client every 3 days (Choice D) is important for monitoring fluid status but is not the priority action when caring for a client receiving TPN.

4. What are the risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and how can it be prevented?

• A. Immobility and oral contraceptive use
• B. Pregnancy and smoking
• C. Obesity and varicose veins
• D. Hypertension and high cholesterol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and oral contraceptive use. Immobility and oral contraceptive use are significant risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Immobility leads to blood stasis, increasing the risk of clot formation, while oral contraceptive use can promote hypercoagulability. Prevention strategies for DVT include promoting mobility to enhance blood circulation and using anticoagulants to prevent clot formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. While pregnancy and smoking can increase the risk of DVT, they are not the specific factors mentioned in the question. Similarly, obesity and varicose veins, as well as hypertension and high cholesterol, are not the primary risk factors associated with DVT.

5. A client is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Calcium
• D. Magnesium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion through increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, muscle weakness, and other serious complications. Monitoring sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels is not typically associated with furosemide therapy, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

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