Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Apples.
• B. White bread.
• C. Bananas.
• D. Grapes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples, white bread, and grapes do not have high potassium levels and are generally acceptable for clients with chronic kidney disease unless they have other specific dietary restrictions.

2. What is the best initial action when a patient presents with confusion?

• A. Administer IV fluids
• B. Perform a neurological assessment
• C. Administer electrolytes
• D. Prepare for a CT scan

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient presents with confusion, the best initial action is to perform a neurological assessment. This assessment helps in identifying potential causes of confusion such as neurological issues, infections, metabolic abnormalities, or medication side effects. Administering IV fluids (Choice A) may be necessary based on assessment findings, but it is not the first step. Administering electrolytes (Choice C) would also depend on the assessment results. Preparing for a CT scan (Choice D) may be indicated later in the diagnostic process but is not the initial action when a patient presents with confusion.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?

• A. Crackles in the lung bases
• B. Blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg
• C. Respiratory rate of 26/min
• D. Heart rate of 86/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26/min is a sign of respiratory distress and should be reported promptly in a client with pneumonia. Rapid breathing can indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which may lead to respiratory failure. Crackles in the lung bases are common in pneumonia but may not be as urgent as a high respiratory rate. A blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg is slightly low but may not be immediately life-threatening. A heart rate of 86/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not the most critical finding to report.

4. A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect to be ordered to monitor the effect of warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). When a client is on warfarin therapy, the INR is monitored regularly to assess the anticoagulant effects of the medication. A therapeutic INR range for most indications is between 2.0 to 3.0. Choices A, C, and D are not typically used to monitor the effect of warfarin. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood, PT measures the clotting time of plasma, and PTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse include?

• A. Limit sodium intake to 4 grams per day.
• B. Limit protein intake to 80 grams per day.
• C. Limit saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories. This recommendation is crucial for clients with hypertension to lower cholesterol levels and promote heart health. Choice A, limiting sodium intake to 4 grams per day, is important for hypertension but not the best recommendation compared to limiting saturated fats. Choice B, limiting protein intake to 80 grams per day, is not a primary dietary concern for hypertension. Choice D, limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day, is not a standard recommendation for hypertension management.

Similar Questions