ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with a new diagnosis of celiac disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I can still have oatmeal for breakfast.
- B. I need to avoid foods that contain gluten.
- C. I can have rye toast with my eggs.
- D. I can continue to eat foods made from barley.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because clients with celiac disease should avoid gluten, which is found in foods like rye and barley. Choice A is incorrect because oatmeal may contain gluten unless specified gluten-free. Choice C is incorrect as rye contains gluten. Choice D is incorrect as barley contains gluten.
2. A client in active labor requests pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer ondansetron.
- B. Place the client in a warm shower.
- C. Apply fundal pressure during contractions.
- D. Assist the client to a supine position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During active labor, nonpharmacologic comfort measures like placing the client in a warm shower are effective for pain relief. Ondansetron (Choice A) is an antiemetic and not used for pain management during labor. Applying fundal pressure (Choice C) can cause harm and is not recommended due to the risk of uterine rupture. Assisting the client to a supine position (Choice D) is not ideal in labor as it can decrease blood flow to the placenta and is associated with increased maternal complications.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Heat the feeding to 105°F (40.6°C).
- B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
- C. Flush the tube with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- D. Verify the pH of the gastric aspirate.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Verifying the pH of the gastric aspirate is the correct action to take before administering an intermittent enteral feeding through an NG tube. This step ensures proper tube placement in the stomach, as the gastric aspirate should have an acidic pH (usually below 5). Heating the feeding solution, elevating the head of the bed, or flushing the tube with saline are not directly related to verifying tube placement and are not the immediate actions needed before administering the feeding.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV fluid bolus of 500 mL over 4 hours to a client who is dehydrated. The healthcare professional should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
- A. 75 mL/hr.
- B. 100 mL/hr.
- C. 125 mL/hr.
- D. 150 mL/hr.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Setting the IV pump to 125 mL/hr ensures the correct infusion rate for delivering 500 mL over 4 hours. To calculate the mL/hr rate, divide the total volume to be infused (500 mL) by the total time for infusion (4 hours): 500 mL / 4 hours = 125 mL/hr. Choice A (75 mL/hr) is too low and would result in an insufficient infusion rate, potentially delaying fluid resuscitation. Choice B (100 mL/hr) would also be too low and not deliver the fluid within the specified time frame. Choice D (150 mL/hr) is too high and would infuse the fluid too quickly, potentially causing fluid overload and complications.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new temporary synchronous pacemaker. Which of the following should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. The client's pulse oximetry level is 96%.
- B. The client develops hiccups.
- C. The ECG shows pacing spikes after the QRS complex.
- D. The client's heart rate is 90 beats per minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pacing spikes after the QRS complex indicate a malfunction of the pacemaker and should be reported. Choice A is not directly related to the pacemaker function. Choice B, hiccups, are common and not typically associated with pacemaker issues. Choice D, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, is within the normal range and does not indicate a pacemaker malfunction.
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