a nurse is caring for a client who reports intimate partner violence what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A client reports intimate partner violence to a nurse. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to develop a safety plan with the client. When a client reports intimate partner violence, the priority is ensuring their immediate safety. Developing a safety plan involves identifying safe places, emergency contacts, and strategies to protect the client from harm. Referring the client to a community support group (Choice B) can be helpful but not the immediate priority. While determining if the client has any injuries (Choice C) is important for assessing their physical well-being, the priority is to ensure their safety. Ensuring the client has access to legal services (Choice D) is crucial, but it is not the immediate priority when the client is at risk of violence.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated WBC count 48 hours postoperatively may indicate an infection and should be reported to the provider. Choice A, a heart rate of 90/min, is within normal limits and not a concerning finding postoperatively. Choice C, urinary output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours, may indicate decreased renal perfusion, but an elevated WBC count is a more urgent finding. Choice D, a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F), which is slightly elevated, could be indicative of the body's normal response to surgery and is not as alarming as an elevated WBC count.

3. A nurse is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds. When assessing a newborn, it is essential to auscultate the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds to accurately determine their heart rate. This method allows for a more precise measurement, considering the variability in heart rates in newborns. Choice A is incorrect because tympanic thermometers are not typically used for newborns due to their ear canals being small and not fully developed. Choice B is incorrect as pulling the pinna forward is not necessary for assessing the apical pulse. Choice D is incorrect as measuring head circumference involves a different assessment and is not relevant to determining the heart rate of a newborn.

4. What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a sodium level of 125 mEq/L (hyponatremia), the nurse should administer 0.9% sodium chloride IV to help increase sodium levels. Choice B, administering a hypotonic IV solution, would further decrease the sodium level. Choice C, encouraging oral fluid intake, is contraindicated as it can dilute the sodium concentration further. Choice D, restricting oral fluid intake, could worsen the client's condition by leading to dehydration and further electrolyte imbalances.

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