ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. What is the most important nursing assessment post-surgery?
- A. Monitor vital signs
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Monitor the surgical site
- D. Monitor the incision site
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor vital signs post-surgery. Vital signs encompass various parameters like blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature. Monitoring vital signs helps in early detection of complications such as hemorrhage, infection, or shock. While monitoring the surgical site and incision site are also essential post-surgery, monitoring vital signs takes precedence as it provides a broader assessment of the patient's overall condition. Monitoring blood pressure is part of vital sign assessment and is not the most comprehensive assessment post-surgery.
2. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.
3. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Apples.
- B. White bread.
- C. Bananas.
- D. Grapes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples, white bread, and grapes do not have high potassium levels and are generally acceptable for clients with chronic kidney disease unless they have other specific dietary restrictions.
4. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT
- B. Monitor INR
- C. Monitor platelet count
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT in patients receiving heparin therapy. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to assess the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count (Choice C) monitoring is essential for detecting heparin-induced thrombocytopenia rather than assessing heparin therapy itself. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.
5. A client with heart failure is being educated by a nurse about fluid restrictions. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Limit your fluid intake to 3 liters per day.
- B. Increase your fluid intake to 5 liters per day.
- C. Avoid drinking more than 1 liter of fluid per day.
- D. You can drink as much fluid as you want during meals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Avoid drinking more than 1 liter of fluid per day." Clients with heart failure are typically advised to limit their fluid intake to around 1 liter per day to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen their condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they suggest fluid intakes that are higher than the recommended limit, which could lead to fluid retention and exacerbate heart failure symptoms.
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