ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for an albuterol inhaler. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take one puff every 5 minutes until symptoms improve.
- B. Hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication.
- C. Shake the inhaler for 2 seconds before use.
- D. Exhale forcefully after each puff.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Instructing the client to hold their breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication allows it to reach deeper into the lungs for maximum effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because taking one puff every 5 minutes may lead to overuse of the medication. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the inhaler for only 2 seconds may not provide adequate mixing of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because exhaling forcefully after each puff may reduce the amount of medication that reaches the lungs.
2. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and is prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. White blood cell count 8,000/mm³
- B. Platelet count 150,000/mm³
- C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
- D. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L. An elevated AST level indicates liver damage, which can be a side effect of methotrexate and should be reported. Elevated white blood cell count (choice A), platelet count (choice B), or normal hemoglobin level (choice C) are not directly related to methotrexate therapy for rheumatoid arthritis.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.
4. A client with a new diagnosis of celiac disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I can still have oatmeal for breakfast.
- B. I need to avoid foods that contain gluten.
- C. I can have rye toast with my eggs.
- D. I can continue to eat foods made from barley.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because clients with celiac disease should avoid gluten, which is found in foods like rye and barley. Choice A is incorrect because oatmeal may contain gluten unless specified gluten-free. Choice C is incorrect as rye contains gluten. Choice D is incorrect as barley contains gluten.
5. A client who is postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty is at risk for hip dislocation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent this complication?
- A. Position the client supine with a pillow between the legs
- B. Place a pillow under the client's knees
- C. Place an abduction pillow between the client's legs
- D. Place a trochanter roll under the client's legs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a total hip arthroplasty, it is crucial to prevent hip dislocation. Placing an abduction pillow between the client's legs helps maintain proper alignment and prevents the hip from dislocating. This position aids in keeping the hip in a neutral or slightly outwardly rotated position, reducing the risk of dislocation. Placing the client supine with a pillow between the legs (Choice A) or using a trochanter roll (Choice D) may not provide the same level of abduction and support needed to prevent hip dislocation. Placing a pillow under the client's knees (Choice B) does not provide the necessary support to maintain proper hip alignment in this situation.
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