ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for an albuterol inhaler. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take one puff every 5 minutes until symptoms improve.
- B. Hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication.
- C. Shake the inhaler for 2 seconds before use.
- D. Exhale forcefully after each puff.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Instructing the client to hold their breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication allows it to reach deeper into the lungs for maximum effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because taking one puff every 5 minutes may lead to overuse of the medication. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the inhaler for only 2 seconds may not provide adequate mixing of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because exhaling forcefully after each puff may reduce the amount of medication that reaches the lungs.
2. A client in her second trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about managing nausea and vomiting. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I will drink a glass of orange juice before I get out of bed.''
- B. ''I will eat small, frequent meals throughout the day.''
- C. ''I will take 1 g of acetaminophen every 6 hours.''
- D. ''I will avoid foods that have a strong odor.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating small, frequent meals is a recommended strategy to manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This approach helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Option A is not as effective as eating small, frequent meals. Option C is unrelated to managing nausea and vomiting, and acetaminophen should only be taken as directed by a healthcare provider. Option D may help reduce nausea in some cases, but the most appropriate response related to managing symptoms is to eat small, frequent meals.
3. A nurse is developing a care plan for a client with Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Provide reality orientation throughout the day.
- B. Limit the client's choices to prevent decision fatigue.
- C. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
- D. Engage the client in sensory stimulation activities.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should include in the care plan for a client with Alzheimer's disease is to provide reality orientation throughout the day. Reality orientation involves helping clients with Alzheimer's disease stay connected to the present, reducing confusion and disorientation. This intervention can help the client maintain a sense of time, place, and person. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because limiting choices may lead to frustration, group therapy may not always be suitable for clients with Alzheimer's disease, and sensory stimulation activities may not address the core issue of disorientation in Alzheimer's disease.
4. A client is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the priority?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
- B. Check the client's urinary output.
- C. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
- D. Assess the client's pain level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioid analgesics, the priority assessment is monitoring respiratory rate. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, so it is crucial to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress promptly. Checking the client's blood pressure (Choice A) and urinary output (Choice B) are important assessments too, but they are not the priority when compared to ensuring adequate respiratory function. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice D) is essential for overall care but is not the priority assessment when the client is on opioids, as respiratory status takes precedence.
5. A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Hematuria
- C. Temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F)
- D. Sneezing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.
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