ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is receiving radiation therapy for cancer of the larynx. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply heat to the neck to relieve pain.
- B. Use a soft-bristle toothbrush to prevent gum irritation.
- C. Rinse your mouth with an alcohol-free mouthwash twice daily.
- D. Wear loose-fitting clothing to protect your skin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to use a soft-bristle toothbrush to prevent gum irritation in clients undergoing radiation therapy for laryngeal cancer. Radiation therapy can cause oral mucositis and increase the risk of gum irritation, so using a soft-bristle toothbrush is recommended to minimize trauma to the gums and oral mucosa. Applying heat to the neck is contraindicated as it can exacerbate tissue damage caused by radiation. Rinsing the mouth with an alcohol-free mouthwash is preferred over an alcohol-based one to prevent drying and irritation of the oral mucosa. Wearing loose-fitting clothing is advised to prevent friction and irritation on the skin, rather than tight-fitting clothing that may cause pressure ulcers or skin breakdown.
2. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?
- A. Administer anticoagulants
- B. Administer oxygen
- C. Reposition the patient
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important nursing intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism is to administer anticoagulants. Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation in the patient's blood vessels, reducing the risk of complications such as worsening of the pulmonary embolism or development of new clots. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary to support the patient's oxygenation, but anticoagulants take precedence as they target the underlying cause of the pulmonary embolism. Repositioning the patient (Choice C) and monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) are important aspects of patient care but are not the primary intervention for a suspected pulmonary embolism.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg
- B. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
- C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.
4. A nurse is providing care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?
- A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
- B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
- C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
- D. Avoid serving raw vegetables.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for a nurse caring for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by low platelet count, which can lead to bleeding problems. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation, which in turn prevents straining during bowel movements, reducing the risk of bleeding. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to infection control rather than managing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is not directly linked to managing thrombocytopenia.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
- B. Glucose 250 mg/dL
- C. Bicarbonate 20 mEq/L
- D. Sodium 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which is expected in DKA. However, in the context of DKA management, persistent or worsening hyperglycemia can indicate inadequate treatment response or complications, necessitating further monitoring and intervention. Potassium levels are crucial in DKA due to the risk of hypokalemia, but a level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range. Bicarbonate levels are typically low in DKA, making a value of 20 mEq/L consistent with the condition. Sodium levels of 135 mEq/L are also within normal limits and not a priority for immediate reporting in the context of DKA.
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