Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.

2. A client is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Instruct the client to take deep, slow breaths.
• B. Administer an anti-anxiety medication.
• C. Remain with the client and offer reassurance.
• D. Encourage the client to use distraction techniques.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a panic attack, the priority action for the nurse is to remain with the client and offer reassurance. This helps provide a sense of safety and security, which can aid in reducing the client's anxiety. Instructing the client to take deep, slow breaths (Choice A) can be beneficial but should come after providing immediate support. Administering medication (Choice B) should not be the first intervention unless deemed necessary by the healthcare provider. Encouraging distraction techniques (Choice D) may not be as effective initially as providing direct support and reassurance.

3. A client has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
• B. Notify your provider if you experience visual disturbances.
• C. Take an antacid with this medication if indigestion occurs.
• D. Avoid taking this medication if your heart rate is less than 60/min.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking digoxin is to notify their provider if they experience visual disturbances. Visual disturbances can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, and prompt notification to the healthcare provider is essential for timely intervention. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Choice C is incorrect because antacids can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Choice D is incorrect because a heart rate less than 60/min is not a sole reason to avoid taking digoxin; rather, it is important to monitor the heart rate and consult with the healthcare provider if there are concerns.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and is receiving oxytocin. Which of the following findings indicates that the nurse should increase the rate of infusion?

• A. Urine output of 20 ml/hr
• B. Montevideo units consistently at 300 mm Hg
• C. FHR pattern with absent variability
• D. Contractions every 5 minutes that last 30 seconds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because contractions every 5 minutes that last 30 seconds indicate that the rate of infusion should be increased. This pattern suggests weak contractions or intervals that are too far apart, requiring an adjustment to improve labor progress. Option A is incorrect as a low urine output is not directly related to the need for an increase in the oxytocin infusion rate. Option B, Montevideo units consistently at 300 mm Hg, is incorrect because it is a measure of intrauterine pressure and does not determine the need for an increase in oxytocin infusion. Option C, FHR pattern with absent variability, is incorrect as it may indicate fetal distress but does not specifically relate to the need for adjusting the oxytocin infusion rate.

5. A client has a new diagnosis of COPD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Breathe rapidly through your mouth when using the incentive spirometer.
• B. Use pursed-lip breathing during periods of dyspnea.
• C. Avoid drinking fluids during meals.
• D. Use diaphragmatic breathing during periods of dyspnea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a beneficial technique for clients with COPD as it helps control shortness of breath and improves oxygenation. This technique involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling through pursed lips, which helps keep airways open. Option A is incorrect as breathing rapidly through the mouth when using the incentive spirometer can lead to hyperventilation. Option C is incorrect because it is important for clients with COPD to stay hydrated by drinking fluids between meals, but not during meals which can cause bloating and discomfort. Option D is incorrect as diaphragmatic breathing, though beneficial, is not the preferred technique for managing dyspnea in COPD; pursed-lip breathing is more effective.

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