a nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina what risk factor should the nurse identify
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Applying a hydrocolloid dressing helps create a moist environment that promotes healing in clients with stage 2 pressure injuries. Choice A, cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine, is not recommended for stage 2 pressure injuries as it can be too harsh on the skin. Performing debridement as needed, as mentioned in choice C, is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, which involve partial-thickness skin loss. Keeping the wound open to air, as stated in choice D, is also not the preferred approach for managing stage 2 pressure injuries, as maintaining a moist environment is key to promoting healing.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of vancomycin IV to a client who has a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to check the client's creatinine level before administering vancomycin. Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, so assessing the client's renal function before administering the medication is crucial to prevent further kidney damage. Administering the medication over 15 minutes (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario as renal function assessment takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (Choice B) is important for assessing renal function but checking creatinine level directly provides more accurate information. Assessing for allergies to antibiotics (Choice D) is also important but not as essential as checking the creatinine level due to the nephrotoxic nature of vancomycin.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because limiting saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories is a crucial component of the dietary management for hypertension. This dietary modification helps reduce the risk of cardiovascular complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because medication adherence should not be based on symptoms like dizziness. Choice B is inadequate as blood pressure monitoring should be more frequent, preferably daily, for effective management of hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because medication for hypertension should be taken consistently as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur.

5. A client who has glaucoma and a new prescription for timolol eyedrops is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because placing pressure on the corner of the eye after using the drops helps in better absorption. Option A is incorrect because eye drops should be placed in the conjunctival sac, not the center of the eye. Option C is incorrect because tears turning red is not an expected outcome of using timolol eyedrops. Option D is incorrect because timolol eyedrops should not appear cloudy.

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