ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Cough.
- B. Dry mouth.
- C. Urinary retention.
- D. Insomnia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A persistent cough is a known adverse effect of enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to a dry, persistent cough in some patients. Dry mouth (choice B) and urinary retention (choice C) are not typically associated with enalapril use. Insomnia (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
2. A client is receiving a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Rub the injection site after administration.
- B. Pinch the skin while administering the injection.
- C. Aspirate before administering the medication.
- D. Avoid taking aspirin while using this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid taking aspirin while using this medication.' Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant medication, and taking aspirin concurrently can increase the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A nurse should not instruct the client to rub the injection site after administration as it may cause irritation. Pinching the skin while administering the injection is not recommended for enoxaparin injections. Aspirating before administering the medication is also unnecessary as enoxaparin is administered subcutaneously, not intramuscularly.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate 110/min.
- B. Temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F).
- C. Respiratory rate of 18/min.
- D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output of 20 mL/hr is below the expected range and indicates potential renal failure, requiring immediate intervention. In postoperative patients, a urine output less than 30 mL/hr suggests inadequate renal perfusion, a concern that needs prompt attention to prevent renal complications. The heart rate of 110/min, temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), and respiratory rate of 18/min are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate immediate issues.
4. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
- B. This medication may cause your blood pressure to increase.
- C. This medication can cause you to retain fluids.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to take the medication with meals. This helps prevent gastrointestinal upset and improves medication tolerance. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, so avoiding foods high in potassium is not necessary. Option B is incorrect as furosemide typically lowers blood pressure. Option C is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss rather than retention.
5. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with hyperkalemia?
- A. Administer calcium gluconate
- B. Administer insulin
- C. Administer sodium bicarbonate
- D. Administer a diuretic
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer calcium gluconate. In hyperkalemia, the priority is to protect the heart from potential complications like arrhythmias. Calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment as it stabilizes the cardiac cell membrane. Insulin (Choice B) and sodium bicarbonate (Choice C) can be used in conjunction with other treatments to shift potassium into cells, but calcium gluconate is the priority. Administering a diuretic (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia and can even worsen the condition by reducing potassium excretion.
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