Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Cough.
• B. Dry mouth.
• C. Urinary retention.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A persistent cough is a known adverse effect of enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to a dry, persistent cough in some patients. Dry mouth (choice B) and urinary retention (choice C) are not typically associated with enalapril use. Insomnia (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

2. A nurse is caring for a client in labor who is receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse notes early decelerations. Which of the following should the nurse expect?

• A. Fetal hypoxia
• B. Abruptio placentae
• C. Post maturity
• D. Head compression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a nurse notes early decelerations in electronic fetal monitoring, it indicates head compression, which is generally considered benign and not associated with fetal hypoxia, abruptio placentae, or post maturity. Early decelerations mirror the uterine contractions and are a normal response to fetal head compression during labor.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 hour postoperative following a hysterectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 78/min.
• B. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg.
• C. Oxygen saturation of 94%.
• D. Respiratory rate of 16/min.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 78/min is within the normal range; however, postoperative patients require close monitoring for any signs of complications. While the heart rate is normal, other critical findings such as increased pain, excessive bleeding, or other concerning symptoms may need immediate attention. Choices B, C, and D all indicate normal postoperative vital signs and oxygen saturation levels, which do not raise immediate concerns requiring reporting to the provider.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serum potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
• B. Blood pressure of 138/84 mm Hg
• C. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
• D. INR of 2.0

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients receiving warfarin. It is crucial to report this finding to the provider before surgery to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustments to prevent excessive bleeding risks. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not directly impact the client's surgery preparation or risk for bleeding, so they do not require immediate reporting.

5. Which lab value is critical for a patient on heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT
• B. Monitor INR
• C. Monitor platelet count
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for patients on heparin therapy as it helps determine the clotting ability of the blood. By monitoring aPTT, healthcare providers can adjust the dosage of heparin to maintain therapeutic levels and prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR is more commonly associated with warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but is not specific to heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness or safety of heparin therapy.

Similar Questions