Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Cough.
• B. Dry mouth.
• C. Urinary retention.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A persistent cough is a known adverse effect of enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to a dry, persistent cough in some patients. Dry mouth (choice B) and urinary retention (choice C) are not typically associated with enalapril use. Insomnia (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

2. What is a crucial nursing responsibility when caring for a patient with a central line?

• A. Flush the line with saline
• B. Monitor for infection
• C. Monitor fluid balance
• D. Replace the central line

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a patient with a central line, monitoring for infection is a crucial nursing responsibility. This is essential to prevent complications such as bloodstream infections. While flushing the line with saline and monitoring fluid balance are important aspects of care, they are not as critical as monitoring for infection. Replacing the central line is only done when necessary due to complications or at the end of its recommended use.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
• B. Heart rate of 88/min
• C. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr
• D. Hematocrit 42%

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Heart rate of 88/min.' A heart rate of 88/min in a postoperative client can be an early sign of bleeding or other complications. It is essential to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate immediate concern. A blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg is normal, urinary output of 30 mL/hr may be adequate depending on the client's fluid status, and a hematocrit of 42% is within the acceptable range for a postoperative client. Therefore, they do not require immediate reporting.

4. What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?

• A. Monitor urine output
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor serum creatinine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will increase my intake of bananas.
• B. I will limit my intake of foods high in potassium.
• C. I will increase my intake of protein-rich foods.
• D. I will increase my intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting potassium-rich foods is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia, a common complication. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods like bananas (choice A), protein-rich foods (choice C), or dairy products (choice D) can exacerbate hyperkalemia in these clients. Bananas, protein-rich foods, and dairy products are all high in potassium, which is detrimental for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

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