Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Cough.
• B. Dry mouth.
• C. Urinary retention.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A persistent cough is a known adverse effect of enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to a dry, persistent cough in some patients. Dry mouth (choice B) and urinary retention (choice C) are not typically associated with enalapril use. Insomnia (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

2. Which medication is used to manage hyperthyroidism?

• A. Levothyroxine
• B. Methimazole
• C. Propylthiouracil
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Methimazole is the correct answer. It is commonly used to manage hyperthyroidism by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones. Levothyroxine (Choice A) is actually a medication used to treat hypothyroidism by supplementing thyroid hormones. Propylthiouracil (Choice C) is another anti-thyroid medication used in the management of hyperthyroidism. Prednisone (Choice D) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 100 mL in 4 hours
• B. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• C. Heart rate of 94/min
• D. WBC count of 15,000/mm³

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.

4. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient with a history of hypertension who is non-compliant with medication?

• A. Encourage compliance through education
• B. Contact the healthcare provider
• C. Document the refusal
• D. Explore alternative treatment options

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging compliance through education is crucial in helping patients understand the importance of consistent medication use. By providing education, the patient can make informed decisions about their health and better manage their condition. Contacting the healthcare provider (choice B) may be necessary in some cases, but the initial approach should focus on patient education. Documenting the refusal (choice C) is important for legal and medical records but does not address the root cause of non-compliance. Exploring alternative treatment options (choice D) should come after efforts to educate and encourage compliance with the current medication regimen.

5. A nurse is assessing a newborn who was delivered at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Dry, cracked skin.
• B. Lanugo covering the skin.
• C. Vernix caseosa covering the skin.
• D. Creases covering the soles of the feet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lanugo covering the skin. Lanugo, a fine downy hair, is a common finding in newborns delivered prematurely at 32 weeks gestation. Choice A (Dry, cracked skin) is incorrect as premature infants often have translucent and delicate skin. Choice C (Vernix caseosa covering the skin) is incorrect as vernix, a waxy substance, is more commonly seen in full-term newborns. Choice D (Creases covering the soles of the feet) is incorrect as creases on the soles of the feet are a normal finding in term newborns, not specifically related to prematurity.

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