ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Cough.
- B. Dry mouth.
- C. Urinary retention.
- D. Insomnia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A persistent cough is a known adverse effect of enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to a dry, persistent cough in some patients. Dry mouth (choice B) and urinary retention (choice C) are not typically associated with enalapril use. Insomnia (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
2. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about the stages of wound healing. The nurse should include in the teaching that collagen is added to the wound during which of the following stages?
- A. Hemostasis phase.
- B. Inflammatory phase.
- C. Proliferative phase.
- D. Maturation phase.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Proliferative phase. During the proliferative phase of wound healing, collagen is added to the wound to promote tissue regeneration. In the hemostasis phase (choice A), the primary goal is to stop bleeding by forming a blood clot. The inflammatory phase (choice B) involves cleaning the wound and preparing it for healing. The maturation phase (choice D) is when the wound undergoes remodeling and gains strength, but collagen addition primarily occurs during the proliferative phase.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.
4. What is the initial step when a patient is experiencing chest pain?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Provide pain relief
- D. Provide nitroglycerin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the initial step in managing chest pain. Oxygen helps improve oxygenation levels in the blood, which is crucial in cases of chest pain. Repositioning the patient, providing pain relief, or administering nitroglycerin may be necessary steps depending on the underlying cause, but administering oxygen takes precedence as it addresses the primary concern of oxygen supply to the body during chest pain.
5. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation and experiencing nausea and vomiting is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should eat crackers before getting out of bed.
- B. You should drink ginger ale with your meals.
- C. You should lie down for 30 minutes after eating.
- D. You should avoid eating between meals.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should eat crackers before getting out of bed.' Eating crackers before getting out of bed can help reduce nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This recommendation helps in stabilizing blood sugar levels before fully waking up. Choice B is incorrect because ginger ale may exacerbate nausea due to its carbonation. Choice C is incorrect as lying down after eating can worsen symptoms of nausea. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding eating between meals can lead to low blood sugar levels, worsening nausea and vomiting.
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