Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Cough.
• B. Dry mouth.
• C. Urinary retention.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A persistent cough is a known adverse effect of enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to a dry, persistent cough in some patients. Dry mouth (choice B) and urinary retention (choice C) are not typically associated with enalapril use. Insomnia (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of angina and reports chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
• B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• C. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• D. Notify the provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a 12-lead ECG. In a client with a history of angina and reporting chest pain, the priority action is to assess for myocardial infarction, which is best done through an ECG. Administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, or notifying the provider can be important actions but obtaining an ECG takes precedence in evaluating the client's condition.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following findings indicates the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. A chest x-ray reveals increased density in all lung fields.
• B. The client reports feeling less anxious.
• C. Diminished breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally.
• D. ABG results include pH 7.48, PaO2 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 47 mm Hg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In a client with a pulmonary embolism, improvement in anxiety levels can indicate the effectiveness of treatment as it suggests better oxygenation and perfusion. Choices A, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. Increased density in all lung fields on a chest x-ray may indicate worsening of the condition, diminished breath sounds suggest impaired lung function, and ABG results with a pH of 7.48, PaO2 of 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 of 47 mm Hg do not specifically indicate treatment effectiveness for a pulmonary embolism.

4. A patient is receiving chemotherapy and has developed stomatitis. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?

• A. Eat salty foods to stimulate salivation.
• B. Avoid spicy foods.
• C. Increase intake of high-fiber foods.
• D. Consume cold foods to soothe the mucosa.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct choice: Consume cold foods to soothe the mucosa. Cold foods can help soothe the mucosa and reduce discomfort for patients with stomatitis caused by chemotherapy.\nIncorrect choices: A) Salty foods may irritate the mucosa further. B) Spicy foods can increase discomfort and irritation. C) High-fiber foods may be rough and abrasive, exacerbating the condition.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

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